I hope I’m not revivifying a zombie here, since this thread was active as little as three days ago.
Hamlet’s (well-reasoned) arguments seem to demonstrate that the only right of an individual to keep and bear arms is in connection with his mebership in an organized militia (the National Guard, the Naval Militia, or a state militia not incorporated into the Guard), and the statutory definition of an “unorganized militia” is irrelevant as not being “a well-organized militia.” (I pass over Elv1s’s arguments because it appears to me that he is setting forth the construction he gives the Second Amendment, and maintaining that his construction is the only valid way in which to interpret it. With no offense to Elv1s intended, I’ve seen the futility, from arguments with Biblical literalists, of attempting to debate against that mindset.)
But I confess to being uncomfortable with that view. Much as I see valid reason for some sensible gun control, the Bill of Rights, as Bricker notes, otherwise guarantees individual rights, not corporate rights – the Tenth Amendment, at its end, to one side. It seems more than odd to me that in the middle of recitations of individual rights, the First Congress would guarantee a State or corporate right. My own construction of the absolute initial subordinate clause would be, “Since the states and country need a well-organized, well-trained militia composed of people who have learned to shoot and who can provide their own arms if needed…” I realize this is very much subject to debate.
However, one of the great tests of a legal concept is to apply it to an extreme, ridiculous situation. “Bad cases make good law” is the maxim – “if the principle applies to everyone, then it applies even to that despicable clown in the dock. Does it, then, apply to everyone?”
So let’s construct an absurd situation to test the principle of “corporate right.” Absent a state guarantee of the sort quoted by E-sabbath in post #112, it would seem to me that under Hamlet’s construction, the following law would be constitutional – not necessarily a good law, but one not violating a constitutional right.
State of Uttar Confusion, General Statutes, Sec. 1984-A
“No person on active duty in the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, or Coast Guard, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the United States Secret Service, or the Central Intelligence Agency shall be permitted to own or carry a firearm except within or upon military reservations within this state. A violation of this section shall be a felony and on conviction subject to a prison term of no less than one and no more than five years, a fine of no more than $5,000, or both, plus removal of his franchise and of other civil rights as defined under ‘Deprivation of Rights As Agaunst Felons’ elsewhere herein.”
Since they are active duty military, they are clearly not part of the militia. Therefore they have no right to own and bear firearms under the “corporate right” interpretation of the Second Amendment.
Somehow I find the idea that such a law could be constitutional to be as absurd as the law itself.