The objective fact is that the mistake can not be repaired to any extent. You can no more give a woman back 20 years of her life than you can giver her back 60 years.
Once again you seem to be assuaging your own guilt by pretending that somehow you can give someone back the years you took provided they aren’t dead yet. Sure, they’re 85 and perpetually semi-comatose, but you’ll let them out after 60 years in prison and somehow that repairs the mistake to some extent.
So you are comfortable that an innocent 20 year old man spend 60 years in jail before proving himself innocent. But killing an 80 year old man is inevitably and always wrong and afar worse crime. Because he has no opportunity to prove himself innocent?
Could you possibly explain what moral equivalence you used to reach such a conclusion?
- Never having spent 10 years in a maximum security jail I honestly couldn’t say. And neither can you. Given the high rates of suicide in maximum security jails obviously many individuals prefer the former.
- IANAL but my understanding is that if there was no procedural error then a wrongfully convicted person doesn’t get one red cent in damages. Please provide references to support your claim that such people receive millions in compensation.
For the sake of argument let’s assume that’s true. Can you explain why you don’t apply the exact same argument to life imprisonment vs 10 years imprisonment? What would you prefer ** clairobscur**? Being freed after 40 years in jail or serving only 10 years in jail and being exonerated 30 years after our release?
Your “desire of justice” compels you to reject the death penalty because the effect on the victim of a miscarriage of justice is worse than the effect of life imprisonment. Yet you don’t feel the same compulsion to reject life imprisonment despite the effect on the victim of a miscarriage of justice being far worse than the effect of 10 years imprisonment.
Can you explain why that is?
You totally missed my point. I wasn’t claiming that the death penalty allowed for rehabilitation.
I was pointing out that if we reject a motivation for a penalty simply because it is being used somewhere in this world to justify the most barbarous punishments then we are forced to reject all penalties.
Yet you seem to find ‘protecting the public’ an acceptable motivation for fines and imprisonment, yet ‘protecting the public’ is being used somewhere in this world to justify the most barbarous punishments.
Can you explain this apparent hypocrisy? If you can not accept a motivation because it is being used somewhere in this world to justify barbarous punishments then why do you apparently accept ‘protecting the public’ as a motivation?
What kind of logical fallacy are you talking about?
Where specifically? You have utilised so many, most obviously equivocation and argumentum ad populum.
Any limit you put on criminal penalty is totally arbitrary. Your position is probably that 6 year old burned at the stake for stealing candies is too harsh and that a 50 $ fine for murder too lenient. Besides that, what logic let you determine what kind of punishment is acceptable and what kind isn’t? Which crime is deserving of which punishment?
That’s a heck of a complicated question that depends on the harm done by the crime, the harm done by the punishment and what outcomes I hope to achieve.
What it is never based on is logical fallacies (eg appeals to popularity), differentially applied standards (eg I can’t endorse any motivation that can justify torture, except when those motivations are being used to justify imprisonment) or “It’s just wrong”.
It is possible to construct a logical morality, but you can’t construct a logical morality with such obviously and provably illogical premises.