I never suggested that one do so. However, your post which prompted my reply specifically referred to that period of time before 1922, i.e. during the time of the Plantations and the Protestant Ascendancy. Moreover, you couched your argument in terms of religious bigotry:
Not only was your remark bigoted, but rather comical when one considers that for the three centuries from the Act of Supremacy until Waterloo, the most powerful nation in Europe was Catholic (first Spain, whose great wealth rested on their naval and shipbuilding prowess, then France, whose wealth derived from the great productivity of their vast Metropolitan holdings).
Harl;and and Wolf was a huge oiperation-at its peak, it employed thousands of workers. Same with the Scottish shipyards-firms like John Brown, Camel Laird dominated the business for years. Yet now, the industry is almost dead-Cunard had ist latest liner built in France.
So why did these enterprises fail? Were they slow to adapt to new methods? Or did low wage Korean and Asian yards make shipbuilding impossible , in the UK?
If you use the link I posted above to view Irish industrial output as a fraction of GDP, it was pretty steady (and thus growing by a factor of fifteen since GDP grew by that amount) in the 1960-1980 period. UK industry at the same time was shrinking as a fraction of GDP.
I think you need a cite for your assertion in the OP. Ireland seems to have done pretty well after 1960 or so. Industry increased, GDP and GDP per captia grew rapidly, child mortality plunged, etc.
I was talking about the 40 years before that. In the 1960’s UK Industry began its decline and many moved overseas (or began too). If Ireland had followed a more industry friendly approach from the beginning, it could well have benefited from that as more Industry went to it.