It could bankrupt her if she didn’t own much personnally before his death and since spent part oh the inheritance, couldn’t it?
Also, she could not be using "bankruptcy in its legal sense, but just mean “I’d have to sell the house”, or something like that…
I suppose that could be it, clairobscure. If she has used up the inheritance, she could still liable for the amount of it, under the second paragraph of art. 625, if I’ve read it correctly.
[QUOTE=Eyer8- Thanks for all the info Northern Piper.[/QUOTE]
You’re welcome.