# Fan interference question **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [August 28, 2008, 11:53am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/fan-interference-question/461537 "2008-08-28T11:53:40Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 2\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![wolfman](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/w/a8b319/32.png) [@wolfman](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/wolfman)\ **Post date:** [August 28, 2008, 11:53am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/fan-interference-question/461537/1 "2008-08-28T11:53:40Z")
I have a question about what happens when there is a gap between the Home run wall and the wall of the stands. Say a 3 foot dead zone, and the ball is dropping right in the middle of it. Is the gap part of the field of play and therefore interference, or is it part of the stands and therefore a homerun. > [@](#): > > Rule 3.16 > When there is spectator interference with any thrown or batted ball, the ball shall be dead at the moment of interference and the umpire shall impose such penalties as in his opinion will nullify the act of interference. > APPROVED RULING: If spectator interference clearly prevents a fielder from catching a fly ball, the umpire shall declare the batter out. > Rule 3.16 Comment: There is a difference between a ball which has been thrown or batted into the stands, touching a spectator thereby being out of play even though it rebounds onto the field and a spectator going onto the field or \*\* reaching over, under or through a barrier \*\*and touching a ball in play or touching or otherwise interfering with a player. In the latter case it is clearly intentional and shall be dealt with as intentional interference as in Rule 3.15. Batter and runners shall be placed where in the umpire’s judgment they would have been had the interference not occurred. > No interference shall be allowed when a fielder **reaches over a fence, railing, rope or into a stand to catch a ball**. He does so at his own risk. However, should a spectator reach out on the playing field side of such fence, railing or rope, and plainly prevent the fielder from catching the ball, then the batsman should be called out for the spectator’s interference. Example: Runner on third base, one out and a batter hits a fly ball deep to the outfield (fair or foul). Spectator clearly interferes with the outfielder attempting to catch the fly ball. Umpire calls the batter out for spectator interference. Ball is dead at the time of the call. Umpire decides that because of the distance the ball was hit, the runner on third base would have scored after the catch if the fielder had caught the ball which was interfered with, therefore, the runner is permitted to score. This might not be the case if such fly ball was interfered with a short distance from home plate. They both seem to lose “right of way” when they reach over something. What when both of them do? ---
**Author:** ![Outpits](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/4bbf92/32.png) [@Outpits](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Outpits)\ **Post date:** [August 28, 2008, 3:53pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/fan-interference-question/461537/2 "2008-08-28T15:53:12Z")
[QUOTE=wolfman] I have a question about what happens when there is a gap between the Home run wall and the wall of the stands. Say a 3 foot dead zone, and the ball is dropping right in the middle of it. Is the gap part of the field of play and therefore interference, or is it part of the stands and therefore a homerun. They both seem to lose “right of way” when they reach over something. What when both of them do? [/QUOTE] IANAU, but the way I would read it is that the only wall that counts is the one defining the playing field, i.e., the home run wall. The separate retaining wall holding back the patrons is merely a device to keep them from reaching out onto the field, or a later addition to make the park smaller. If a ball is hit into the “gap” (over the playing field wall, but short of the retaining wall) that should be the same as if it were in the stands and there would be no fan interference.