If we want the legislative branch to be stronger as against the executive, the thing to do would be to abolish the Senate. A one-house legislature is much stronger.
I would think a potential compromise ruling if the SCOTUS takes it up would be to uphold the D.C. Circuit’s striking down on the President being allowed to determine when a recess exists, but upholding the President’s power to make a recess appointment anytime the Senate itself says it is in recess (so not just at the end of the year.)
I’ve talked at length about parliamentary systems, and in general favor them over ours. As the British system existed in the 1780s it was a mess, even less democratic than the first U.S. political system before all the suffrage battles and etc, so I understand why we chose an alternative. But what I’ve said in this very thread, is the key thing about any parliamentary system I’ve observed is the PM can fall in an instant if his behavior becomes grossly unacceptable. Until/unless our head of government had that level of accountability I wouldn’t support the position being as powerful as the British PM.
I’ve proposed similar, but basically a “castration” of the Senate where it becomes an advisory body with no power to seriously stop legislation.
I also like the German system. Their version of the Senate can only block legislation that deals with State issues. The Germans also have a better structured Federalism. They have enumerated issues that are exclusively state policy, issues that are shared, and issues that are exclusively Federal.
Issues that affect the States require approval by their upper house, but they can’t block other types of legislation. (Their upper house is more of a true representative of the State’s government too, as State delegations are typically made up of the State’s executive and some of his ministers.)
Yes I do because
[QUOTE=Article II, Section 3]
He shall from time to time give to the Congress Information of the State of the Union, and recommend to their Consideration such Measures as he shall judge necessary and expedient; he may, on extraordinary Occasions, convene both Houses, or either of them, and in Case of Disagreement between them, with Respect to the Time of Adjournment , he may adjourn them to such Time as he shall think proper; he shall receive Ambassadors and other public Ministers; he shall take Care that the Laws be faithfully executed, and shall Commission all the Officers of the United States.
[/QUOTE]
The only question of fact is if the House and Senate disagree on the time of adjournment.
Taking the President’s position that pro-forma sessions do not prevent a recess, then would not any positions filled by recess appointment immediately come to an end if and when the Senate actually recesses formally, even if it is not THE recess at the end of term?
Gavel out a recess. Gavel back in a new session. Appointees gone. So long as such a recess is not for more than three days then the House need not approve.
So let the President appoint someone over a long holiday weekend. The next time the Senate recesses in such a manner those appointments would “expire at the End of their next Session”.
The president’s party could hardly argue that , with recess appointed officials in place, that pro forma sessions then suddenly prevent a recess.
Two sides can play quibbling semantics.
Honestly, I think the court is just trolling here. They are going beyond the case at hand to invalidate two centuries worth of jurisprudence which has allowed recess appointments. They are violating that same rule that wound up with Roberts saying that Obamacare was constitutional. You rule with the least level of disruption. You don’t use the law to invalidate recess appointments in general when the case being made is about whether the Senate is in recess at all.
The only reason I can think they would do this is to try to force the Supreme Court to get involved. It’s a dare–if you don’t get involved, recess appointments go away completely.
I saw this on the BBC, and my first thought was “Yeah, right, like this is going to stick.” There’s a reason why this is always reported as “a federal court” rather than with any implication that it’s going to stick. It makes it sound more important than it is.
If the position remains vacant, the vacancy is still happening.
Would there be a way (other than SCOTUS saying we’ll do what we want bitches) for SCOTUS to rule that all previous appointments are valid because <fill in Latin here, maybe meaning implicit consent of the Senate for not removing the person appointed> but in the future recess appointments can be only be for vacancies occuring during a recess.
Sure. They simply rule prospectively. Courts do it all the time; in fact, in some situations (such as when a ruling negatively impacts criminal defendants), they must.
[my annotation]
This is kind of what the framers were going for when they said the Senate members were to be chosen by the legislatures of each state. This way the state legislatures would send people to the senate who would protect the state’s power over certain issue over the federal government’s attempted usurpations, or else they would be thrown out by the state legislature. Of course that all went out the window when the constitution was amended to institute the popular election of senators, and the accompanied growth in federal power.
People continually apply antifederal interpretations to the work of federalists. The federalists were nationalists. They distrusted state governments and wanted to empower the central government. That’s the whole point of enacting the Constitution. While they couldn’t avoid resting some of the federal edifice on the states they did what they could to make Senators more independent by giving them long terms, not subject to recall, and per capita voting. That the House was to represent people and the Senate to represent States is an ex post facto justification. In the federal convention it was hoped that Senators would not be tied to local views but rather have a more cosmopolitan outlook.
That seems the best outcome for me. Not sure how likely it is.
Writing and ratifying the Constitution was a process that included federalists and anti federalists. There was give and take. In any case, the motives of the founders concern me less than the mechanisms by which the federal government has usurped power from the people. The fact remains that the original process for electing senators was conducive to preserving state functions from federal encroachment.
Where is your support for this claim?
N.B.: “The people” != “the states.”
Cite?
The people have greater control over the state government. It’s simple mathematics.
How about American history up until 1913 vs. American history since 1913.
State governments aren’t the people. Back in the 18th century they were considered closer to the people but as physical distance receded in importance this position has become more difficult to sustain. On the contrary, since today federal politics get so much more attention you can argue that state governments aren’t held as closely responsible to their constituents.
The federal convention itself. The debate began from the Virginia Plan with representation based on population and wealth (in human form) in both houses of a bicameral legislature (though still with the 2nd house chosen by the legislature rather than popularly elected) and evolved into what we have now. What we ended up with was not the result of elegant first principles but comes from messy compromises. The upper house in revolutionary America was inspired by the House of Lords and was intended to serve the same purpose: to represent or protect property. In general see The Upper House in Revolutionary America, Jackson Turner Main.
And like many arguments ostensibly based on common sense, it’s not true. The lower the level of government, the less involved the electorate.
Hurm. If we are considering the intent of those ratifying the Constitution and not just drafting it (and that is not unreasonable after all) then claiming that this is an ex post facto justification doesn’t work because the idea came up during ratification.
That is not supported by practice, I don’t believe any President has ever used this power and thus its scope is unknown, and the wording is vague.
What is an extraordinary circumstance? A situation where Congress is refusing to do something the President wants? I’m highly dubious of that as an extraordinary circumstance as it opens the floodgate to extreme executive abuses (for example, a President could declare a Congress moving to impeach him had an “adjournment disagreement” and thus needed to be adjourned by executive fiat.)
Further, what is a disagreement about timing of adjournment “between them?” Does that mean between the House and between the Senate? Or does it mean when the internal members of the House or Senate cannot agree among themselves when to adjourn.
Further, it says this power can be used to adjourn when there is a timing disagreement, might not that imply both Houses would need to have made some motion for adjournment, on which they could not reconcile the timing? Without such a motion from both Houses, it’s hard to make an argument Obama is resolving a disagreement at all.
Finally, Obama never invoked this power and never said “I’m adjourning Congress” he never issued any writ or made any proclamation or in any way made it known he was adjourning Congress. Instead, he said the Senate was not in session, a recognition of what he asserted was true, not an active use of executive power. That makes it very hard to argue he was using a power never before actually executed and thus of dubious clarity when he himself never asserted he was using such power.