There is general agreement that the greater movement of cattle resulting from centralised supermarket distribution systems and fewer (but easier regulated) slaughter houses is contributing to the scale and speed of the virus’s spread. That the virus has already spread to the Continent rather suggests that this is not a factor specific to Britain. Asking “What the hell is wrong with England?” seems too narrow-minded an approach.
What is more, none of this necessarily explains the initial outbreak. Until the precise means by which the virus arrived in Britain has been identified, any conclusions about its cause must be premature.
The real test is, in any case, not whether outbreaks can be prevented but the speed and thoroughness with which the authorities react. The British government’s response has so far been a textbook example of what that reaction ought to be.
I’m not sure quite what you’re asking here. If you mean why has England (and Wales and Scotland too by now) had an outbreak of foot and mouth disease in it’s animals, then I’d have to say I don’t know, and I don’t think anyone will until the relevant authorities have traced the site of first infection.
If you’re referring to BSE, you can read the report here on the causes, results and failings of the government, farmers and everyone else involved. It’s a pretty tough read though.
I suspect your question is first BSE, now foot and mouth, what the hell is going on? I don’t think the two are related in any obvious way. Do these two outbreaks tell us anything about the farming methods used in the UK. Now that I do not know but it would be interesting to find out, although I suspect it’s the sort of area where anecdotal evidence holds greater weight than true science ie the ‘It’s not natural’ versus ‘There’s no evidence to show it causes any harm to people’ type of arguments.
My understanding is that farming methods in the UK do not differ radically from those on the Continent. We are one of (if not the) most densly populated countries in Europe, so that may have something to do with the speed of transmission (the virus can be spread by people and vehicles, as well as animals).
A number of people have suggested that intensive agriculture is responsible (including one of the people on that R4 debate last night), but that wouldn’t explain why the outbreak occured in Britain rather than, say France or Belgium. It also doesn’t explain why it is endemic in Africa, South America and most of Asia.
And I suppose football is properly called “soccer” as well?