Gavrilo Princip and the Archduke

Works for me, sorry.
It is a cartoon of the Kaiser watching Bismark leave a ship, as though he were dropping of the pilot of the ship of state.

Stupid, stupid, stupid. Bismarck spent his whole career as Imperial Chancellor making sure that whenever Germany was on bad terms with France it would be on good terms with Russia, and vice-versa, because like any sensible German he wanted at all costs to avoid a two-front war. The Kaiser was not a sensible German.

Wilhelm was bat shit insane, to use a technical Psychological term.

Didn’t work for me, either. Here it is on wikipedia.

I’ve posted this before, but, to put the peace terms in context, this passage from Gerhard Weinberg’s (excellent) A World at Arms:

It wasn’t quite “peace without victory,” but the terms were far more lenient than what Germany would have offered had she been victorious, and within 20 years Germany was again the most powerful country in Europe, so apparently Germany was not too badly mistreated after all.

I’m actually reading John Keegan’s WWI history right now. He makes the point that, had Austri-Hungary simply acted immediately and unilaterally in dealing with Serbia (instead of dithering for a month with securing German support, issuing ultimatums, etc.), it’s unlikely that that conflict would have spread to the rest of Europe. Basically, none of the other powers (even Russia) would have cared enough to intervene, and of course Austria didn’t *need *any help to take care of Serbia militarily. He also suggests that Russia committed to full mobilization needlessly, and that a partial mobilization instead, too, would likely have avoided the World War.

(Not to say that a general war wouldn’t have been kicked off by some other crisis shortly thereafter, but it’s possible the war could have been avoided altogether with more time for circumstances to change.)

Didn’t Russia have a treaty with Serbia that required Russia to protect Serbia?

Is he suggesting the Weimar Republic killed the Deutsche Mark to the tune of over 4 trillion Deutsche Marks per dollar in exchange rates?

If so that is some kind of brilliance I am not seeing.

I had no idea it was that bad.

I don’t think it was a formal treaty. But it was a diplomatic understanding. Russia had declared Serbia was under its protection.

Russia was pretty much obligated to intervene if Austria-Hungary attacked. Russia had already been humiliated by its defeat in the Russo-Japanese War in 1905 and the Annexation Crisis of 1908. The Russian government decided it could not afford to back down in the next crisis - it would have to fight to maintain its credibility as a great power.

I don’t understand your question. Of course Weimar killed the deutschemark. Who else could have done it?

Their motives can be debated. I personally think it had more to do with inflating away the wartime debt they owed to their own citizens, and with financing resistance to the Ruhr occupation, than with “demonstrating inability to pay”. But it can hardly be doubted that Weimar inflated the mark to zero, by printing trillions of them.

The basic idea was that they would make a show of trying to comply with the reparations schedule. But they would do it in such a way it would wreck the German economy. That would be used as justification for the German claim that paying off the reparations was impossible. The theory was that the losses caused by hyperinflation would be less than the losses caused by paying off the reparations.

The theory didn’t really work. The hyperinflation turned out to be worse than expected and wrecked all public confidence in the government. This was a major factor in the rise of the Nazi party, which obviously had a negative effect on conditions in Germany and Europe. And in the end, Germany had to pay all the reparations anyway.

That’s not entirely true. Really, it’s worth reading Adam Ferguson’s “When Money Dies” for the best explanation of the Weimar hyperinflation.

If the Austro-Hungarians had moved decisively on Serbia, I can imagine they might have absorbed it within a month or two – far more quickly than Russia could have mobilized in its defense. How would they come to direct aid of an ally that no longer existed?

The same way the Coalition of Good Guys came to the aid of Kuwait.

Maybe not. Although the Russian mobilization distracted parts of the Austrian 2nd army, the forces eventually launched at Serbia were not that much less than had originally been proposed and they ended getting a bloody nose. Assuming General Potiorek makes the same boneheaded blunder he eventually did for much the same reasons ( haughty overconfidence and rushing to get a quick victory ), he may have well ended up with the same shitty results.

Not that Serbia could have held on for long. But given the incompetence shown by the Austrian command in the first campaign, I wouldn’t assume a quick walkover either.

Austria’s main problem with a quick mobilization was that most of its army was on harvest leave, meaning an attack into Serbia before they got back would have been difficult.

Which you can find in a pdf here

Now I read that Woodrow Wilson’s entry of the US into the Great War contributed to the success of the Bolshevik revolution. This apparently comes from a book by Jim Powell, has anyone read this book? Is there anything to it, or is it, as one reviewer says, a screed? Because I find it hard to fathom how a case could be made for that.

Let’s just say Powell is a libertarian who tends to see history through a libertarian viewpoint.