Whew! What a load of non-informed bushwah!! Yikes!
Suggestion: Learn something about a topic before spouting on it.
Addressing the original post only:
This does NOT mean that each state is required by the constitution to accept every legal determination made by any other state, nor give effect to the laws of every other state. The most famous case involving this issue is Scott v. Sandford, 19 How. (60 U.S.) 393 (1857), the so-called “Dred Scott” case. To review the facts briefly, the slave, Dred Scott, had resided for some short period of time in Illinois, which had a law annuling enslavement. He then returned to Missouri, which was a ‘slave’ state under the Compromise of 1820. His master died, whereupon he sued to have himself declared free, based upon the law of Illinois (and of the Territory of Wisconsin, but that is irrelevant here). The Supremes said nope, not the case. Justice Nelson wrote, “No State . . . can enact laws to operate beyond its own dominions . . . Nations, from convenience and comity . . . recognizes [sic] and administer the laws of other countries. But, of the nature, extent, and utility, of them, respecting property, or the state and condition of persons within her territories, each nation judges for itself.” (ibid. at 460) A similar result occurred in Bonaparte v. Tax Court, 104 U.S. 592 (1882), where the law of one state exempting from tax certain bonds didn’t make those bonds tax-free in another state.
The Supremes being what they are, however, this general rule isn’t always applied. Recent cases have tended to require the forum state (where the issue is litigated) to give due respect to the law of the foreign state, but allows the forum state to apply its own law where it has a significant enough interest in the subject matter area. This, of course, tends to leave the issue ultimately up to the Supremes. (see, e.g.: Allstate Insurance Co. v. Hague, 449 U.S. 302 (1981); Phillips Petroleum Co. v. Shutts, 472 U.S. 797, 818 (1985) (quoting Allstate ;
Nevada v. Hall, 440 U.S. 410 (1979)).
As to the issue of marriage, I found no relevant cases. The issue of divorce, of course, was hotly contested from 1900 to 1950, as a result of the ‘quickie’ available in Nevada. The upshot of the Nevada divorce cases was that 1) Nevada was allowed to legally divorce a couple based on its own residency/domicile laws; 2) The divorce had to be given full faith and credit in other states, unless a party to the marriage was not legally ‘present’ before the Nevada court and could show that the person who obtained the divorce in Nevada didn’t really have domicile there, and 3) Regardless of the status of the couple, Nevada’s law on divorce didn’t affect the law of other states on issues such as support obligations, etc.
Applying this to the gay marriage issue, my best guess would be that: initially, at least, they will be treated similarly to the tax-exempt bonds, that is, valid between the parties only in the state that allows them; eventually, as the nation becomes less worried about the issue of some single state setting the law on the subject, the marriage will be considered legal, but the effect of such a marriage won’t necessarily be the same as that between hetero-sexual couples, simply shifting the battleground.
Anyone with relevant case law is invited to post same.