-Nice. I link scholarly articles with bibliographies, and you link anonymous, unfootnoted reports. (By whom?) (Is this a high school history report that you linked, or what?)
if you want a specific reference, i’ll get it for you. not everything i have i can link to. i don’t get most of my info from internet sources.
-My cites provided information on primary sources which demonstrate that scalping was practiced by American Indians on a large scale, over a broad geographic area, and (more to the point) before Columbus was even a gleam in his Daddy’s eye.
they did anything but. rather, they suggested, even outright stated in instances that the practice was begun over here, for what that’s worth. they could not reasonably argue its reach however, so they more or less shied away from anything too definitive on that. you on the other hand didn’t. they gave you 2 inches and you made a foot out of it.
-And you still want to argue that the Europeans taught the Indians to scalp? Delusion.
was i arguing that?.. talk about delusional. i even stated it was likely some tribes developed the practice here, with a few lone warriors in others having taken it upon themselves to do as much, but just as you have sources saying this and that, i have some in books that tell of it having to be introduced to various tribes who’d never been involved in the practice. and either way, the main crux of what i was saying is that the colonial european powers, and later the u.s. government and its various state and territorial polities caused the practice to become widespread where prior it had not been.
-I readily grant you that the Indians were no more “savage” than the Europeans, but they were certainly no less so.
oh, so they were pretty much even then. let me tell you something… if native people were about the same, you and i wouldn’t be having this conversation now because white people wouldn’t be here.
-Make a list of atrocities by Europeans or Americanized Europeans against Indians, and I can match you atrocity-for-atrocity with massacres and mutilations committed by Indians.
and yet you fail to realize, or give much thought to what the brutality was for on either side, which is a key element in grasping the discussion thereof… native people were really only as brutal as they had to be. and because of being marked for extirpation, they had to be very brutal at times. what did the whites have to be brutal about? think about it before you give a knee-jerk response, or give one and then reflect on it. i don’t care. the answer won’t sound too good no matter how you spin it.
-As for the definition of genocide, I’m glad you brought that up. It is an attempt to wipe out a race, are we agreed on that?
no we are not. to have committed genocide, you don’t even have to kill anyone. you may target their culture for annihilation. most people don’t realize that because genocide’s generally misunderstood. i hope you argue further with me on that because i’m being purposefully vague. i’d advise you to look into how the term came about and how it’s defined now.
-What was the attack on Ft. Mims but 19th century “ethnic cleansing”? What was the attack on the Jamestown colony but a 17th century version of the same thing? Why were women and children slaughtered indiscriminately in each of these instances, if not to wipe out the seed of the white man? Why were the fetuses cut from pregnant women except as a symbolic demonstration of that intent?
i mentioned this prior and you seemed to have glossed over it… the reason why none of those occasions was genocidal is, one, because all of the above ‘victims’ were combatants. only the children i could say were innocents, but their parents should not have placed them in such situations. all others were not innocent bystanders. they were occupying muskogee (creek) and tsenacommacah (powhatan confederation) lands respectively. that, no matter what you think of it, is an act of war. as such, any response to that falls within the guidelines of war and not of a genocidal campaign. it isn’t as if the creeks went to scotland or something and started trying to drive those people out. these people were on creek lands. what they got is what they got. that is the chance they took.
-And turning the question around (and returning to the subject of the original column), we have to ask whether Andrew Jackson was genocidal. Did he intend to wipe out the Indians? Did he intend to eliminate them as a race? The answer, quite clearly, is “No.” If you contend otherwise, you have to explain the following:
it should be said again that you are basing your premise on a faulty understanding of the word you’re using, so the argument has to reverse now. you have to understand the applicability of the word genocide before you can bat it around as such.
-Why did Andrew Jackson spare Creek (Muscogee) women and children at Horseshoe Bend? (I mean, if you want to wipe out the race, here’s a chance, right?)
i believe i said they did in fact target woman and children at horseshoe bend, as well as throughout the upper creek towns. you need to get better sources if the ones you have are consistantly lying to you. it’s no secret what happened there.
-Why did Andrew Jackson adopt an orphaned Creek child?
who knows… i’ll just concede that point, not knowing whether it’s true or not, but saying to that, who cares? so if i’m to believe that kind of argument is viable, then let’s say hitler adopted a little jewish child during the european holocaust. does that mean there wasn’t genocide committed against european jewry then? come on…
-Why did Andrew Jackson relocate the Southern tribes instead of just slaughtering them, as he could have done?
it was not so easy to just have slaughtered the tribes at that point, nor politically expedient, believe it or not… it should be pointed out that such a removal was a form of genocide in and of itself.
-Why did Andrew Jackson offer the Cherokee the option of remaining in the East and becoming citizens?
few ever got this. and, of course, it was because they’d done something in turn for him. more than he ever did for them.
-Were the Indians ripped off? Sure. Were they forced off their land? Yes. Were they wronged? Absolutely.
Were they the victims of “genocide”? No.
this is just getting downright stupid… please, look up a guy named rafael lemkin, and see what he did. then, look into the u.n. genocide convention for more practical, yet scaled down definition. i can’t stress enough the importance of knowing what you’re talking about here.
to think though, you would call acts against those who are the aggressors ‘genocidal,’ while not considering the reciprocal as such, let alone worse, when the intent is not only for their territory, but for their lives, cultures, and very existence as peoples as well. it’s f***ing preposterous. it’s as if you can’t understand the concept of self-defense.