Re the OP: the question I have is:
Is Missy’s landline being charged for receiving a call from a cellphone while not being charged for receiving calls from other landlines?
Is the charge a set amount for each received call, or per minute?
I can imagine a situation where Missy might pay a charge for every call received on a landline, but to be charged for only receiving cellphone calls doesn’t seem likely.
Not that I can assist Missy, but here is Oz, the ONLY party that gets charged for a call (cell-cell, cell-fixed, fixed-cell) is the originator of the call.
So people can call me all they like on my mobile (cell) phone and I don’t get charged a cent.
They pay for everything.
Seems we may be a little bit more forward that the rest of y’all.
By y’all I assume you mean the USA. We have the same situation here in ireland as I said in an earlier post.
that Missy has a “personal (800)” number, the types that were marketed to lonely grandmas so that cheap-ass grandkids could call them and Grandma would be charged?
And if so, could Mary have the 800 number mistakenly programed into her cellular?
That would be a resonable answer as to why she is getting billed and why she is getting billed by only Missy.
Regarding the SMS/mobile tangent…
I’m a UK mobile user currently working in the Czech Republic. I pay a surcharge to Eurotel-CZ for incoming and outgoing calls and for text messages on top of those levied by Orange, my UK operator. For example, an SMS message within the UK on my Orange talk plan is (IIRC) 10p, but Eurotel adds another 9p to that.
Within the UK no company I know of charges for receiving mobile calls on a land line.