It’s not incorrect, but stylisticalness says put other people before yourself. “Mom drive Buford and me to the store”.
Well, I’m the opposite of a grammar expect, but surely the “more” applies to the union before the one described in the Constitution not the perfect one. It’s a comparison.
Surely something that’s perfect would be “more perfect” than something that isn’t perfect.
And likewise, isn’t something thats close to perfect “more perfect” than something that’s average ?
As Gigi pointed out, “Mom drive Buford and me to the store” is better, but it might be worth mentioning that if your friend keeps hanging around with good ol’ Buford, the redneck-o-meter is going to start beeping regardless of pronoun usage 
.
Try using CamelCase: FamilyOriented.
You and Gigi are both correct! Thank you.
(My friend’s from Kentucky…what can I say? 
)
“Five am in the morning”.
It’s the same thing. Bob got blowjobs from Sally + I got blow jobs from Sally = Bob and I got blowjobs from Sally. You could clarify by specifying the number, such Bob and I each got three blowjobs from Sally. Me never got a blowjob from anybody, not even Sally, as lax as her standards are.
Now, if you throw in the verb gave instead of got, it does become Sally gave Bob and me blowjobs, because nobody gave I blowjobs either.
Is anyone else imagining Cookie Monster demanding “Me want blowjob!” too? No? Must just be me.
The Economist spells it out this way:
Hopefully: **y all means begin an article hopefully, but never write “Hopefully, it will be finished by Wednesday.” Try "With luck, if all goes well, it is hoped that… "
In my mind, I try to remember hopefully is an adverb.
Can someone delineate for me when to use “everyone” and when to use everybody"?
Irregardless. Damn it, the word is regardless or maybe irrespective.
Well this isn’t a pet peeve, but it’s something I’ve been thinking about for while, and since this thread is being read by a bunch of fellow grammar mavens, I thought I’d see what you all think.
You frequently hear/read constructions such as “For the third time in as many weeks…” or “Twice in as many months…”
Now, the meaning here is perfectly clear. I don’t think there’s a case to be made that it’s absolutely wrong in the same way that its/it’s, or the many other cases that have been discussed here are.
But it seems to me that the phrase “as many” really should be pointing to a specific numeric antecedent, i.e., a number. And furthermore, it is usually not difficult (in written material) to recast the sentence to use numbers instead of ordinals. For instance, “Three times in as many weeks…” is perfectly fine.
Now, this issue doesn’t drive me crazy (like plurals formed with apostrophes) and I’m not necessarily willing to go to the wall for it, but I’d be interested in hearing if other people agree or disagree with me.
Five or ten years ago, maybe. But IME, this message has gotten so much play that many people now use “fewer” all the time, even when “less” is correct. I have literally heard “It is fewer than five miles away.” :smack:
Why?
No, seriously, why try to remember? The construction works for you, right? I’m presuming so, since you have to make a conscious effort not to use it that way. Works for me, works for my roommate, probably works for my next door neighbor. So the word modifies a sentence instead of a verb or adjective. How is this bad English?
I know someone’s pet peeve will very shortly be busybody descriptivists. Sometimes I just can’t help it.
Something that doesn’t promote a stereotype perhaps? I’m a “hillbilly,” but I didn’t have any trouble seeing your problem when you said:
I don’t have perfect usage, but that form makes me wince and has since the first grade.
Whatever, Zoe. It was a joke.
As for dropping the “I” when starting a sentence, it’s only because that’s the way we speak. The “I” is usually said close to a whisper, so it’s just dropped. That’s my WAG anyway.
My peeve is the random question marks at the ends of statements. “I was wondering if you want to go?” “I hope he’s OK?” “Maybe Mom’s just drunk again?” Those aren’t questions!!! ARGH!
While we’re on the subject, I’ve been wondering for weeks if it’s:
Just because you can doesn’t mean you should.
Just because you can, it doesn’t mean you should.<–I vote for this one.
Just because you can, that doesn’t mean you should.
To make official memoranda sound like it’s been written by the illiterate, always use “myself” instead of “me”.
If you have any questions or concerns on this matter, please don’t hesitate to contact myself.
Here’s mine and I see it all the time.
I should of done that.
instead of:
I should have done that.
There’s a bloody great advertisement on the London Underground (for example, on the northbound Northern Line platform at Embankment) at the moment trumpeting the improvement work they’re doing. It proudly boasts, “New signals mean less delays”…
When I sent them a pedantic e-mail, the response was jaw-dropping (or was it “jaw dropping”?) - they claimed they were using “less” colloquially.
Colloquial, my arse - it was because no bugger at Transport for London or the advertising firm they used actually knew the correct form.
The OP is correct. Adverbs ending in -ly almost never need a hyphen, because it should be plain to all and sundry what is modifying and what is being modified.
Does anyone ever hyphenate “blowjob”? Blow-job. The British, perhaps?
When you have a blowjob I know you don’t need a colon.
Shouldn’t it be “just because one can”?
p.s. Do you work with Mike M?