# Has Jesus ever committed a sin or multiple sins?

**URL:** https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923
**Category:** Great Debates
**Created:** [November 29, 2003, 5:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923 "2003-11-29T17:03:36Z")
**Posts on this page:** 20
**Page:** 3

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### Author: ![Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/e99b99/32.png) [@Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Diogenes_the_Cynic)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 2:50am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/41 "2003-12-02T02:50:41Z")

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That was the whole _point_ of baptism, **JT**. It served no other purpose. It wa a ritual cleansing.

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### Author: ![vanilla](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/v/f19dbf/32.png) [@vanilla](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/vanilla)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 3:18am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/42 "2003-12-02T03:18:09Z")

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What I find interestign is that Jesus was considered untainted by sin becasue he didn’t have a phsyical father.

Sin is supposedly transmitted through Adam, and all fathers.

So…that would mean only men are tainted with original sin.  
Of course, women aren’t then, if you follow this line of reasoning.

Interesting.

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### Author: ![AncientHumanoid](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/ancienthumanoid/32/278_2.png) [@AncientHumanoid](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/AncientHumanoid)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 3:32am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/43 "2003-12-02T03:32:49Z")

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re: **Vanilla** ’s post  
Which is how some people explain the whole virgin birth thingy as being valid. Especially since the angel told Mary that God’s spirit would overshadow her.

So, the two together makes the sinless nature of the Chist Child valid, in some Christian’s opinions.

Of course, that may not be how the mainstream chuches explain it, I haven’t asked them in a long time…

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### Author: ![IWLN](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/i/b5ac83/32.png) [@IWLN](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/IWLN)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 3:38am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/44 "2003-12-02T03:38:04Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by JThunder \*  
> \*\*Please show us all where the Bible says that purpose of Christ’s baptism was to wash away the sins of his childhood. Methinks you’re proceeding from a faulty assumption, here. \*\*

It doesn’t say his baptism was to wash away sin. That is what baptism was for. Jesus told John to baptize him because “it is proper for us to do this to fulfil all righteousness”. I can’t say that I believe or don’t believe he sinned and don’t believe it’s as important as we think. I actually kind of hope he had a good time while he was here. What I do know is we only have part of the history wrote back then and if something doesn’t say something happened, it doesn’t always follow that it didn’t.

**DtC** , Your statement about the banana was horrible and as soon as I get done hysterically laughing, I’m going to be righteously indignant. Is nothing sacred to you? Wait, that won’t work. Bad DtC, bad boy.😛

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### Author: ![vanilla](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/v/f19dbf/32.png) [@vanilla](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/vanilla)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 3:38am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/45 "2003-12-02T03:38:15Z")

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and makes women less sinful than men!  
😉

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 4:34am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/46 "2003-12-02T04:34:34Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by IWLN \*  
> \*\*It doesn’t say his baptism was to wash away sin. That is what baptism was for. Jesus told John to baptize him because “it is proper for us to do this to fulfil all righteousness”. \*\*

Which doesn’t mean that it was done to wash away Christ’s sins. It was an act of obedience, and thus, fulfilled all righteousness in that manner.

So try again. WHERE does the Bible say that Christ’s baptism was done to wash away his sin? Where does it say that ANY baptism literally washes away one’s sins?

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 4:40am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/47 "2003-12-02T04:40:53Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by Diogenes the Cynic \*  
> \*\*That was the whole _point_ of baptism, **JT**. It served no other purpose. It wa a ritual cleansing. \*\*

Again, cite? _Where does the Bible say that this was indeed “the whole point of baptism”_? I’d like you to provide a specific and unambiguous citation, proving that this was indeed its entire purpose.

Moreover, if it was a _ritual_ cleansing, as you yourself admitted, then it does not literally wash away sin. Hence, even if you were correct (which you are not), it still would not conclusively prove that Jesus was indeed a sinner.

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### Author: ![AncientHumanoid](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/ancienthumanoid/32/278_2.png) [@AncientHumanoid](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/AncientHumanoid)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:14am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/48 "2003-12-02T05:14:31Z")

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What Peter said about baptism:

> [@](#):
>
> 1 Peter 3:21
> 
> Amplified Bible - And baptism, which is a figure [of their deliverance], does now also save you [from inward questionings and fears], not by the removing of outward body filth [bathing], but by [providing you with] the answer of a good and clear conscience (inward cleanness and peace) before God [because you are demonstrating what you believe to be yours] through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.
> 
> New International Version - and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also–not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a good conscience toward God. It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
> 
> King James Version - The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:

Might help the discussion.

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### Author: ![IWLN](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/i/b5ac83/32.png) [@IWLN](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/IWLN)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:17am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/49 "2003-12-02T05:17:05Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by JThunder \*  
> Which doesn’t mean that it was done to wash away Christ’s sins. It was an act of obedience, and thus, fulfilled all righteousness in that manner.
> 
> So try again. WHERE does the Bible say that Christ’s baptism was done to wash away his sin? Where does it say that ANY baptism literally washes away one’s sins? \*\*

Third verse down.

**"I baptize you with[2] water for repentance. Mark 3:11**

**Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River. Mark 1:5**

**Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.Acts 2:38**

I did not say that this was why Jesus _was_ baptized. I don’t know and don’t pretend to know or need to know. I wasn’t there. And I’m not sure it specifically says. If it does, why don’t you show us?

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### Author: ![Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/e99b99/32.png) [@Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Diogenes_the_Cynic)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:30am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/50 "2003-12-02T05:30:15Z")

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What’s relevant here is not _Christian_ baptism but what baptism meant to ancient _Jews_. In ancient Judaism, it was all about ritual purity.  
[Jewish bakground of Christain baptism](http://www.haydid.org/ronimmer.htm)

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### Author: ![Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/e99b99/32.png) [@Diogenes\_the\_Cynic](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Diogenes_the_Cynic)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:33am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/51 "2003-12-02T05:33:18Z")

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Forgot to pull up the relevant quote:

> [@](#):
>
> To the ancient Jew, the mikveh was a process of **spiritual purification and cleansing,** especially in relation to the various types of Turmah or ritual defilement when the Temple was in use.

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:35am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/52 "2003-12-02T05:35:54Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by NoClueBoy \*  
> \*\*What Peter said about baptism:
> 
> (1 Peter 3:12 cited)
> 
> Might help the discussion. \*\*

Better read the passage more carefully, **NoClueBoy** , and in its context. This verse talks about being saved _from a bad conscience_, and **not** from the penalty of sin.

In fact, the very first translation which you cited was from _The Amplified Bible_. As you yourself quoted, it says,

> [@](#):
>
> And baptism, which is a figure [of their deliverance], does now also save you [**from inward questionings and fears**], not by the removing of outward body filth [bathing], but by [providing you with] **the answer of a good and clear conscience (inward cleanness and peace)** before God …

In other words, the words you quoted do not support your claim. If anything, they refute it.

There is a tendency to inject modern jargon into one’s readings of the Bible, even when it is unwarranted. This is one such example. People speak of being “saved” so often that they naturally interpret the word in this solitary manner, without any regard for the context.

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:43am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/53 "2003-12-02T05:43:58Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by IWLN \*  
> \*\*I did not say that this was why Jesus _was_ baptized. I don’t know and don’t pretend to know or need to know. \*\*

In which case, your claim is irrelevant. But let’s examine it anyway.

[QUOTE]  
\*\*Third verse down.

**"I baptize you with[2] water for repentance. Mark 3:11**

**Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River. Mark 1:5**

**Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.Acts 2:38**  
Still not good enough. For one thing, there are many other passages which reject earthly works as a basis for salvation (Romans 4:1-17, 11:6; Gal 3:8-9; Eph 2:8-9 and more), which suggests that one should not be hasty in adopting your interpretation.

Second, there is direct textual evidence which shows that the phrase “and be baptized, everyone of you, in the name of Jesus Christ” is meant to be parenthetical. The verb “repent” and the pronoun “your” are both rendered in the plural, whereas the verb “be baptized” is singular. This suggests that the reference to baptism is parenthetical, that is, equivalent to saying “Oh, and while we’re on the topic, be baptized, all of you!” Given the greater context of Peter’s teachings (see Acts 5:31, 10:43, 13:38 and 26:18), this makes more sense than the more obvious but overly simplistic rendering which you espoused.

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### Author: ![AncientHumanoid](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/ancienthumanoid/32/278_2.png) [@AncientHumanoid](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/AncientHumanoid)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:47am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/54 "2003-12-02T05:47:21Z")

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Don’t lecture me, JT!

All I did was provide a Biblical cite, with no commentary. What _claim_ did I make in that post?

Look it up yourself and see. I added nothing to any of the quotes.

[1 Peter 3:21 (AMP)](http://bible.gospelcom.net/cgi-bin/bible?language=english&passage=1+peter+3%3A21&version=AMP)

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### Author: ![IWLN](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/i/b5ac83/32.png) [@IWLN](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/IWLN)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 7:18am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/55 "2003-12-02T07:18:31Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by JThunder \*  
> In which case, your claim is irrelevant. But let’s examine it anyway.

What claim? You asked where it said baptism was for sin. I gave you a few choices. For the record again, I believe in God. I just have a problem relying to any great extent on a book that has been translated how many times and revised, how many times? For inspiration yes, for literality, no way.

> [@](#):
>
> Still not good enough. For one thing, there are many other passages which reject earthly works as a basis for salvation (Romans 4:1-17, 11:6; Gal 3:8-9; Eph 2:8-9 and more), which suggests that one should not be hasty in adopting your interpretation.

I don’t have an interpretation. I’m not sure what this has to do with the original topic. I understand what these verses are saying, but not why you’re quoting them?

> [@](#):
>
> Second, there is direct textual evidence which shows that the phrase “and be baptized, everyone of you, in the name of Jesus Christ” is meant to be parenthetical. The verb “repent” and the pronoun “your” are both rendered in the plural, whereas the verb “be baptized” is singular. This suggests that the reference to baptism is parenthetical, that is, equivalent to saying “Oh, and while we’re on the topic, be baptized, all of you!” Given the greater context of Peter’s teachings (see Acts 5:31, 10:43, 13:38 and 26:18), this makes more sense than the more obvious but overly simplistic rendering which you espoused.

I answered a direct question with a verse quote and now I’m espousing an overly simplistic rendering. Hey, you aren’t trying to witness to me are you? :eek:

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### Author: ![Bippy\_the\_Beardless](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/ac8455/32.png) [@Bippy\_the\_Beardless](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Bippy_the_Beardless)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 4:37pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/56 "2003-12-02T16:37:48Z")

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My claim, if claim it be, was that Jesus could have been so completely Human as to sin in his childhood, but yet become sinless after the Baptism of John washed away his sins.  
I really don’t care for literal biblical interpretation, but come from the general idea that I have seen and heard that makes Baptism (or any other religious form of washing, in Islam, Hinduism,…) as a method by which sins (or bad acts…) are washed away from the person baptised so that they can be clean for future spiritual activity.

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 5:59pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/57 "2003-12-02T17:59:14Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by NoClueBoy \*  
> \*\*Don’t lecture me, JT!
> 
> All I did was provide a Biblical cite, with no commentary. What _claim_ did I make in that post?
> 
> Look it up yourself and see. I added nothing to any of the quotes.
> 
> [1 Peter 3:21 (AMP)](http://bible.gospelcom.net/cgi-bin/bible?language=english&passage=1+peter+3%3A21&version=AMP) \*\*

Okay, I’ll grant that _technically_, you didn’t make any direct claim in that post. However, the clear and obvious implication was that baptism was itself the vehicle for salvation; otherwise, why cite this specific passage?

At any rate, the Amplified Version expands on the subtleties in the text, and it clearly shows that this passage has nothing to do with salvation from the penalty of sin. It is therefore not relevant to the issue at hand.

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 6:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/58 "2003-12-02T18:05:08Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by IWLN \*  
> \*\*What claim? You asked where it said baptism was for sin. I gave you a few choices. \*\*

Again, same issue. Your statement was given in direct response to the question “Where does the Bible say that baptism is the literal washing away of sin?” While there is no _explicit_ claim made, the implication is obvious; otherwise, why cite these passages, and why reply at all?

> [@](#):
>
> \*\*  
> For the record again, I believe in God. I just have a problem relying to any great extent on a book that has been translated how many times and revised, how many times? \*\*

Well, golly. Why don’t you tell us?

How many intermediate translations did the Old Testament go through, in translating from the Hebrew to. say, the NIV or NKJV versions? (Hint: Less than one.) How many intermediate translations were used in deriving the New Testament translations? (Hint: Less than one.) And how many times has the Bible been revised, since you obviously believe this was a repeated occurrence?

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### Author: ![JThunder](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e95f7d/32.png) [@JThunder](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/JThunder)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 6:06pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/59 "2003-12-02T18:06:41Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by Bippy the Beardless \*  
> \*\*My claim, if claim it be, was that Jesus could have been so completely Human as to sin in his childhood, but yet become sinless after the Baptism of John washed away his sins. \*\*

Which, as I’m repeatedly forced to point out, assumes that baptism _does_ literally wash away one’s sins. So far, there has been no support for that claim.

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### Author: ![More\_Cowbell](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/b5a626/32.png) [@More\_Cowbell](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/More_Cowbell)
#### Post date: [December 2, 2003, 6:12pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-jesus-ever-committed-a-sin-or-multiple-sins/215923/60 "2003-12-02T18:12:16Z")

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Slightly less famous than the question “what does ‘is’ mean” is the question “what does ‘all’ & ‘no one’ mean”? All bolding mine.

Romans 3:10-12  
As it is written: “There is **no one** righteous, **not even one** ; there is no one who understands, no one who seeks God. **All** have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is **no one** who does good, **not even one**.”

And on a bit to Romans 3:23  
for **all** have sinned and fall short of the glory of God

I fail to see where the exception is made for Jesus. “All” means “all”. “No one” means “no one”. “Not even one” is pretty clear. In fact, Jesus is mentioned throughout Romans 3 but never presented as the exception to any rule.

Or do you contend that there are alternative, non-literal meanings here?

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