# Has partitioning nations ever worked? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [February 26, 2007, 2:39pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723 "2007-02-26T14:39:53Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 6\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![Colibri](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/colibri/32/1841_2.png) [@Colibri](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Colibri)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 3:49am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/21 "2007-02-27T03:49:09Z")
[QUOTE=Polycarp] Actually, perhaps the best example of two nations living fairly comfortably in close proximity after partitioning was imposed by an outside party is right where **Colibri** is. Following the end of Gran Colombia in (IIRC) the 1830s, Ecuador and Venezuela split off from New Granada, which retained the name Colombia. But it was larger than the present nation of that name, extending into Central America to the border of Costa Rica (itself recently independent from the Central American Federation). In 1903, the inhabitants of that northern strip rebelled and declared independence. But the background story is interesting. Colombia, you see, was not particularly interested in seeing a U.S.-owned canal across its northern extremity. The rebels were glad to have the support of the U.S. Navy and Marines, who didn’t intervene but lurked menacingly. Successful in their revolt, they declared the Republic of Panama and signed a treaty with Teddy Roosevelt giving the U.S. a long term lease on the Canal Zone. And in general, Panama and Colombia have gotten along since. [/QUOTE] A bit of additional background: Panama and Colombia gained their independence from Spain separately in 1821 (although Panama had been ruled from Colombia as part of the Viceroyalty of New Granada). Panama voluntarily decided to join in union with Colombia after that. It thought better of this several times during the 1800s and rebelled, but Colombia was always able to retake the province, unlike the cases of the larger and stronger Venezuela and Ecuador. It wasn’t so much that partition was imposed by the US, but that the US taking an interest in the Canal route finally allowed Panama to achieve its long-sought independence from Colombia. The main reason it was relatively peaceful was that Colombia was no match for the US, and knew it; and there were hundreds of miles of roadless sparsely inhabited jungle between the populated parts of Colombia and Panama. ---
**Author:** ![Alessan](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/alessan/32/465_2.png) [@Alessan](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Alessan)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 9:17am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/22 "2007-02-27T09:17:24Z")
The partition of Palestine. [Stunned silence] No, not _that_ partition of Palestine, the earlier one - 1921, when the British split off the eastern half of the Mandate and gave it to the Hashemites, forming the Kingdom of Transjordan (later just Jordan). It was a protectorate until 1946, and it’s been mostly stable and prosperous throughout its existance. Sure, it has fought its neighbour, but when have two neighbouring countries ever_not_ fought a war? ---
**Author:** ![Dead\_Cat](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/9fc29f/32.png) [@Dead\_Cat](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Dead_Cat)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 10:29am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/23 "2007-02-27T10:29:22Z")
This thread reminds of the episode of _Yes, Prime Minister_ [1980s British political satire sitcom] where Sir Humphrey Appleby (IIRC), a top civil servant, claims that it has always been British Foreign Office policy to partition a country when leaving it, so that the locals fought each other instead of Britain (e.g. Ireland, Cyprus, India). He claimed that the policy was therefore hugely successful. Never mind the thousands of innocent lives lost, of course. ---
**Author:** ![Nava](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/n/da6949/32.png) [@Nava](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Nava)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 12:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/24 "2007-02-27T12:01:42Z")
[QUOTE=Polycarp] Actually, perhaps the best example of two nations living fairly comfortably in close proximity after partitioning was imposed by an outside party is right where **Colibri** is. Following the end of Gran Colombia in (IIRC) the 1830s, Ecuador and Venezuela split off from New Granada, which retained the name Colombia. But it was larger than the present nation of that name, extending into Central America to the border of Costa Rica (itself recently independent from the Central American Federation). In 1903, the inhabitants of that northern strip rebelled and declared independence. But the background story is interesting. Colombia, you see, was not particularly interested in seeing a U.S.-owned canal across its northern extremity. The rebels were glad to have the support of the U.S. Navy and Marines, who didn’t intervene but lurked menacingly. Successful in their revolt, they declared the Republic of Panama and signed a treaty with Teddy Roosevelt giving the U.S. a long term lease on the Canal Zone. And in general, Panama and Colombia have gotten along since. [/QUOTE] The way the Costa Ricans tell it, they are still Confederación Centroamericana. It was originally intended as a copy of the US but rapidly lost any intent to be a nation and became a supranational entity, more decoration than anything else. Car plates in the region say _Centroamerica_ and the country’s name. ---
**Author:** ![Polycarp](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/p/82dd89/32.png) [@Polycarp](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Polycarp)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 3:18pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/25 "2007-02-27T15:18:51Z")
[QUOTE=Dead Cat] This thread reminds of the episode of _Yes, Prime Minister_ [1980s British political satire sitcom] where Sir Humphrey Appleby (IIRC), a top civil servant, claims that it has always been British Foreign Office policy to partition a country when leaving it, so that the locals fought each other instead of Britain (e.g. Ireland, Cyprus, India). He claimed that the policy was therefore hugely successful. Never mind the thousands of innocent lives lost, of course. [/QUOTE] “You may well say that, but of course I could not possibly comment!” 😛 ---
**Author:** ![Captain\_Amazing](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/6de8d8/32.png) [@Captain\_Amazing](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Captain_Amazing)\ **Post date:** [February 27, 2007, 3:22pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723/26 "2007-02-27T15:22:44Z")
[QUOTE=Polycarp] “You may well say that, but of course I could not possibly comment!” 😛 [/QUOTE] That was Francis Urquhart. You’re confusing your fictional sinister British politicians. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/has-partitioning-nations-ever-worked/393723.md?page=1)