One very skeptical account I read of the Nuremberg trials claimed that “They indited three patently innocent people who could be found not guilty, so it could be claimed the verdicts weren’t predecided”.
I’ve always read that the Soviets were pretty gung-ho about offing the lot of them. Does your skeptical account claim this was all a charade?
Yes, definitely true. Still it kind of sticks in my craw that when Goering called it victors’ vengence in the case of the russians you could sort of argue he might have actually been right.(Gee, can you tell I don’t want to say he was right?)
No, it claims that it was “winner’s justice”.
I don’t understand – could you explain what this means? The Soviet Union, US, and UK were all winners. While the last two favoured acquittal of three defendants, the first was adamant that they be found guilty, and as I recall was quite upset with the verdicts. How is the outcome of the trials “justice” as far as the Soviet Union is concerned?