For the sake of clarity, who would you accept as having both the expertise and the independence needed to come up with those equity and debt risk charts? I fear that anyone with the expertise may be tainted by how they acquired such expertise. Also do these independent experts value at what the assets are worth if they needed to be all immediately liquidated or what they believe they will be worth over the longer term?
Also when you answered your own question as to if banks were solvent with a “no” … on what do you base that given the lack of clear valuations available which would be needed to make such a definite conclusion?
I would also ask for clarity as to your definition of solvency. This author in February offered up several definitions of solvency.
The first was regulatory solvency and there he felt banks were likely not solvent (and agrees with you that their self-assessments are not to be trusted - “after all – they are bankers and they lie.”
But he cares little about regulatory solvency: “It’s perfectly normal (and in my view acceptable) to have inadequate regulatory midway through a nasty downturn. Dividends should be cut, profit should be retained, even growth curtailed – all of which are how banks get back to normal regulatory capital – but confiscation or nationalisation of banks because the regulatory buffers have been removed is harsh – and unreasonable behaviour.”
The next definition is positive net worth under GAAP, and for this definition of solvency he concludes “the banks almost certainly collectively pass. The losses (yield to maturity basis) are unlikely to be more than 2 trillion. We started with 1.4 trillion of capital – will have made probably 400 billion on pre-tax-pre-provision profits and having raised more than 500 billion.”
The third solvency definition is positive economic value of the banking entity. Here he also grants them solvency: “The system in my view clearly has positive economic value.” At least assuming that the governmental response allows them to function.
Fourth up is whether or not the banks have a positive liquidation value. And here it is a quick no. And no surprise there. No buyers on the spot means low low prices.
And fifth is the closely related question of if banks have enough liquidity. Here he notes that this is an issue of confidence. In the absence of a run on them then yes they do.
It may be that declarations of insolvency are a bit premature. Or not, depending on the definition you choose. Which one do you believe is most important and why? How would you differ with the above analysis and on what basis?
Moving along. Given that your concern, relevant to this thread’s op anyway, was how banks’ alleged certain impending insolvency is locking up the flow of money (“Because the answer is no we don’t have the liquidity to borrow money for manufacturing, purchase those goods, or buy new houses.”) why is not lending volume the key metric for you?