# Homeopathy vs. non-homeopathy dilution calculations

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/homeopathy-vs-non-homeopathy-dilution-calculations/670717>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [October 8, 2013, 8:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/homeopathy-vs-non-homeopathy-dilution-calculations/670717 "2013-10-08T20:01:51Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 3

<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Jackmannii](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/jackmannii/32/311_2.png) [@Jackmannii](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Jackmannii)\
**Post date:** [October 9, 2013, 4:58pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/homeopathy-vs-non-homeopathy-dilution-calculations/670717/41 "2013-10-09T16:58:07Z")

</div>

> [@WhyNot](#):
>
> What is supposed to prevent it is the FDA regulations detailed in post 29. No, you cannot legally go make just anything into a homeopathic remedy at any dose you choose, it has to be listed in the pharmacopoeia.

Can you show me the part of the law where it supposedly specifies a minimum dilution for a product to be marketed as homeopathic (in other words, anything that would make a 3C “homeopathic” dilution illegal)?

[Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/homeopathy-vs-non-homeopathy-dilution-calculations/670717.md?page=2)