OK.
You started out saying that there was only one will.
Then you said there were two wills that were the same.
Now you say there are two wills that are not the same but one is subjugated to the other.
Is this your final position or are you likely to change yet again?
No, you have avoided the question several times and you just did so again.
If they both have wanted the same thing then why did Jesus ask for one will to be done and one will not to be done?
How can one will be done and one will not be done if they both want the same thing?
Can you please answer this question rather than just asserting that they wanted the same thing.
That really comes close to wrapping it up for you dude. You are clearly being wilfully ignorant. You are also clearly making this up as you go along.
I already quoted where it says quite clearly that it is a fricken prayer. How the hell can you claim that it’s not a prayer when the Gospels state in black and white that “He withdrew about a stone’s throw beyond them, knelt down and prayed, 4"Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done."
That’s a fricken prayer. It says so quite clearly. On what sort of bizarro world is that not a prayer? Given that I have already provided that quote once before and you have read it, it now seems quite clear clearly seeking to evade this issue rather than address it.
Now that we have established beyond any reasonable dispute that it was parayer, can you answer the question without further weaselling?
When Jesus withdrew about a stone’s throw beyond the Apostles, knelt down and prayed, “Father… not my will, but yours be done.” Was that prayer answered?
It’s a simple question. Can we get an answer without further weaselling? Or ludicrous claims that when it says Jesus prayed he wasn’t praying?
All that I care about is that we have established that it’s an irrelevance.
Clearly you can not answer the question.
But God is a already defined as being omnipotent, yet you imagine there are some things he is incapable of. Which paradox trumps which?
And the rest of yBeaf’s post is pretty much the same.
Dude, this is GD, not pointless naysaying. I have provided an argument that appears to lead to a conclusion., Simply saying “No” isn’t a debate. It’s not even rational.
Do you want to actually debate this issue or are you simply going to respond to my arguments with single word non sequiturs?
Well you hadn’t made that at all clear so far. That is a pretty minor theologuical viewpoint.
But anyway, I’ll rephrase to accommodate it, and to prevent you from weaselling still more.
I want the soul of a sinner in hell feel no pain at all. Can God manage that act or not?
Frankly Qbeef it’s becoming frightfully clear that you have no rational or logical position. You resolutely refuse to answer questions until you are nailed to the wall. Instead you answer questions you wish you’d been asked. It’s impossible to have a reasonable debate with someone who changes their position every time they are asked to define it. From “One will” to “Two will always in agreement” to “Two wills, not in agreement but one subjugated”.
You have also resorted to frankly ludicrous tactics of claiming that when the bible says Jesus preyed specific words they weren’t prayer. It’s impossible to have a reasonable theological debate if you insist on point blank ignoring whatis clearly written in the gospels.
Will please at the very least concede that when it says “[Jesus]knelt down and prayed… ‘not my will, but yours be done.’" That it was a fricken’ prayer.
If you can’t even do that then we can call this quits right now. It will be quite clear where you are coming from if you refuse to concede that when it says that Jesus prayed specific words that he was praying.