# How Does Gay Marriage Work Interstate-wise?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/how-does-gay-marriage-work-interstate-wise/613319>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [February 19, 2012, 12:56pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/how-does-gay-marriage-work-interstate-wise/613319 "2012-02-19T12:56:47Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 2

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**Author:** ![lawbuff](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/l/13edae/32.png) [@lawbuff](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/lawbuff)\
**Post date:** [February 29, 2012, 6:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/how-does-gay-marriage-work-interstate-wise/613319/21 "2012-02-29T18:20:24Z")

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> [@BigT](#):
>
> I don’t see how that’s a practical difference. All Congress would have to do is say that doing X fulfilled FFC, and X could be something other than actual recognition. Like, for example, treating otherwise married men as domestic partners in a state that doesn’t have SSM.

I don’t see why as it comes under the heading already of:  
§ 1738. State and Territorial statutes and judicial proceedings; full faith and credit

To me, you can’t be much more clearer, the DOMA subchapter concerns FFC, as above, so the language of DOMA itself is self expanatory.

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