This is not quite correct. In fact the first trans-Atlantic slave trade was in caucasians. Specifically white Guanches ( from the Canary Islands ), Berbers, other Muslim prisoners, Jews, debtor Portuguese, etc., all sent to the Portuguese-owned Madeiras Islands, where the first European Atlantic economic colony was founded in the 15th century. The wealth of the Madeiras was based on sugar plantations and may have been, in its heyday, the most profitable colony relative to acreage, ever. Conditions were particularly brutal and die-off heavy. As the Guanches became extinct, and other sources ( i.e. those prisoners of war and impoverished Portuguese ) proved unable to meet demand, Portugal only then began turning to the conveniently close source of sub-Saharan Africa - Mostly from the 16th century on.
Later the Portuguee exported this plantation system that they had perfected in the Madeiras to the New World, where it was swiftly copied. It was this system that reached its culmination in the Antebellum South. It should be noted that in the Americas too, the original slave force wasn’t black, but native. Black Africans were only brought in after the profound demographic collapse of native populations due to European disease made it necessary.
The change in perception from a slave being a raceless economic status, to a strictly racial category was a gradual one at first. Frankly it originally came about only because of economic reasons ( i.e. black slaves were much easier to obtain in sufficient quantities than white slaves ) - i.e. there was nothing moral about it. It was as white slavery disappeared for economic reasons and blacks became the only visible slave force, that racial notions began to seep more strongly into the European consciousness ( no doubt helped along by the rising tide of nationalism and European world dominance ).
So there was never really a question of superior morality here. At first it was simple economic expediency. Later it was just plain racism.
tamerlane and tomndebb, your points are well taken and I do not want to divert the thread any further from the central question “How many slaves made the Middle Passage? How many died?” Whatever the number was I just have a problem with putting all the blame on the shoulders of whites. I do not know that I would even use the word “blame” at all. They were different societies, all of them African and European, and should not be judged by today’s standards. I just can’t stand political correctness. But the central question here is an objective one so I guess I’ll step aside and let those who may have something to contribute to answering that question have their discourse. I am sorry I cannot help with that but it is an interesting question.
Folks, let’s confine ourselves to discussing the general question.
There is already a thread in Great Debates to which some of the above posts are better suited: African slave question I suggest you all read both threads to see which is better suited to your comments.
If the findings above–and the estimated 1.5 million deaths occuring during the Middle Passage–are accurate, then the total number of Africans who died in the New World may have approached three (3) million persons. (This, of course, does not factor in mortality once they were sold into slavery.)
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*Originally posted by sailor *
Please see my reply, amplifying on the informed replies by Tamerlane, Tomndeb et al in the thread linked by biblio…