Sure. At the same time, there’s no reason to think that all such acts are created equal.
To take an extreme hypothetical, suppose a republican discovers that a bunch of democratic voting workers are engaged in ongoing systematic fraud in which they literally just throw away republican votes without counting them. Now, the republican who did the discovering might be a partisan shill who, if he discovered the same fraud in the opposite direction, would just pretend he saw nothing and walk away. Nonetheless, we should clearly work to eliminate that fraud and punish the perpetrators even if the person who brought it to our attention is potentially partly partisanly motivated.
I guess for me these things work on several levels:
(a) what the stated goal is, and why that makes things more (lower-case-d) democratic
(b) to what extent we believe the stated goal would actually be achieved
(c) what the immediate impact would be, and whether THAT made things more democratic
(d) why it is that some party believes this would benefit them specifically
So the initial laws under discussion here, assuming for a moment that the most cynical interpretation is true, look like this:
(a) Stated goal is to reduce voter fraud. Reducing voter fraud, in and of itself, totally in isolation, is clearly a good thing
(b) however, as there is almost none of the type of voter fraud that this law claims to address, it’s hard to see how this law would actually accomplish anything
(c) in the meantime, the immediate impact (again, taking the most cynical view) is to make it disproportionately harder for certain groups of people to vote, thus reducing voter turnout only among specific groups. This, I argue, makes things clearly LESS democratic
(d) and the republicans believe it would benefit them because of long-term systemic demographic issues that are unlikely to change
Compare that to the Mass. thing:
(a) stated goal is to switch senatorial elections from special-election-by-the-people (which is perfectly democratic) to appointnment-by-duly-elected-governor (also, basically, democratic). Or back the other way.
(b) would presumably accomplish that goal
(c) immediate impact is to precisely accomplish that goal
(d) democrats believe it would benefit them because at that precise moment they happened to either control, or not control, the governorship. But it’s clearly just a temporary thing (assuming that the long term likelihood of a republican winning a statewide election for governor is about the same as the long term likelihood of a republican winning a statewide special senatorial election).
So there’s the same level of purely partisan cynicism, but I think what’s different is that there’s isn’t the actively anti-democratic borderline-disenfranchisement. Now, other reasonable people can certainly disagree with my analysis, but my point is, as it so often is when arguing with you, that merely bringing up a vaguely comparable situation in the other direction at some point in the past 5 years doesn’t ever actually address the discussion at hand. See, Michael Moore being compared to the ACORN guy.