Ladies and Gentlemen, this is where Gonzo is confused. From his linked site:
[QUOTE=gonzo’s link]
The consumer pays $10,792, but only $1,842 of it gets credited back to Principal. What if he sold his house after that first year? Would it seem like he paid a 6.0% rate?
[/QUOTE]
He thinks that a 5% interest rate means that 5% of his payment is for interest and 95% for principal. Gonzomax, that’s not at all what it means. Your link gives a scenario for a $150,000 mortgage at 6%. They show that in year 1, you pay $8,949.89 in interest and $1,842.02 in principal. They’re confusing you by calculating (interest/payment=rate) and showing it’s 83%, not 6%, and crying foul.
This is incorrect, since the formula isn’t true anyway. It’s actually (interest/outstanding$=rate). If we use the correct formula, we find that the interest for the first year should be $150,000*6%=$9000. The table itself shows that the borrower only pays $8,950.
We can thus conclude that the bank…no, you know what? I’m going to write this big:
The bank is charging you less than they said they would!!
Disclaimer for everyone not-gonzomax: I’m ignoring daily compounding, yes I know, but I don’t want his head to a-splode
Gonzo, plain and simple, the article you’ve linked to is lying to you by playing switcheroo with the definition of “mortgage rate”.
ETA: I just want to point out, one more time, Gonzo, that the rate is a percentage of the outstanding balance, not your payment. That’s why the interest is higher in the beginning of the loan (when there’s more outstanding balance) and lower at the end. If you make the same payment, of course there’s less left over to lower the principal early on!!