Oh. I was thrown because you said that 53,287 kids died, so it doesn’t make any sense to change the denominator to 100,000.
Check me if I’m wrong, but your logic is as follows: of the kids who die, 0.26% of them died from gun accidents. Therefore gun owners are safe.
Does that really make sense to you?
By what standard do you decide that 0.26% of all child deaths reflects something that is safe?
Consider this, for example. 14,570 child deaths are caused by perinatal conditions. Imagine, hypothetically, that these deaths were entirely eliminated. Now, 0.35% of all child deaths are due to firearms. Have gun owners suddenly become 35% more risky?
Or perhaps it is stupid to use the overall number of all child deaths as the denominator in considering whether gun owners are safe or not.
Consider this, for example. The number of accidental deaths of children was 11,560. Thus, 138 of 11,560 accidental deaths was due to firearms, or 1%. Suddenly are gun owners 4 times more risky than we thought before? Is 1% over or under our criterion level for deciding whether gun owners are risky or not?
Or perhaps it is stupid to use the overall number of child deaths as the denominator in considering whether gun owners are safe or not.
Consider this, for example. Zero child deaths were due to anthrax. Therefore, gun owners are more dangerous than anthrax. Or 5* kids died due to open abandoned wells. Therefore guns are more dangerous than open wells.
Or perhaps it is stupid to use the proportion of deaths relative to the overall number of child deaths as a gauge of riskiness.
*I actually couldn’t find any reported child deaths due to abandoned wells, so I made up this number for the sake of example.
I’ve posted just recently on the number of firearms injuries to children. In 2011, there were 2,886, according to the CDC WISQARS database.