# I v. Myself Grammar Question.

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/i-v-myself-grammar-question/833566>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [May 6, 2019, 2:45pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/i-v-myself-grammar-question/833566 "2019-05-06T14:45:19Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 3\
**Page:** 4

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**Author:** ![GreysonCarlisle](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/g/a87d85/32.png) [@GreysonCarlisle](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/GreysonCarlisle)\
**Post date:** [May 11, 2019, 9:28pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/i-v-myself-grammar-question/833566/61 "2019-05-11T21:28:52Z")

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> [@Patx2](#):
>
> Nailed it. This is an excellent explanation of proper usage.

Keep reading.

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**Author:** ![Kent\_Clark](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/kent_clark/32/105_2.png) [@Kent\_Clark](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kent_Clark)\
**Post date:** [May 11, 2019, 10:35pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/i-v-myself-grammar-question/833566/62 "2019-05-11T22:35:56Z")

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> [@GreysonCarlisle](#):
>
> Not even that. It was an effort to impose Latin rules on a Germanic language. Though, to be fair, you couldn’t split infinitives in most Germanic tongues, either.

> [@psychonaut](#):
>
> Which tongues would those be? In all the Germanic languages I’m familiar with, a preposition-like marker (_to_ in English, _zu_ in German, _te_ in Dutch, _at_ in Danish, _að_ in Icelandic) needs to come before the infinitive in at least _some_ (albeit very common) constructions. So at least in those languages it should be possible (even if not strictly permissible) to split infinitives. I’d be interested to know which Germanic languages don’t have infinitives like this.

Then why isn’t it spelled “togo,” as in “togo boldly. . .”

Tobe or not tobe.

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**Author:** ![septimus](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/septimus/32/410_2.png) [@septimus](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/septimus)\
**Post date:** [May 12, 2019, 7:52am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/i-v-myself-grammar-question/833566/63 "2019-05-12T07:52:19Z")

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That ‘myself’ is often used for reflexive or emphatic purpose does _not_ mean that it can _only_ be used in such ways. Prince Harry’s utterance may have been substandard stylistically (though I don’t find it objectionable) but it is _not_ incorrect.

HTH.

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