I love the example… But I’m lost as to where you’re going with it. What point, exactly, are you trying to make with it?
If we had such a construct – a working emulation of a human brain – and we did horrible things to it, then re-set it to its conditions prior to our actions – then it would not “remember” the horrible things. I guess we would all agree that, given the emulation, we could do this.
To my way of thinking, the suffering is gone. It happened – and that imparts moral shame to the people who did it. But there is no victim! The emulation has no memory of the experience. To the world at large, it is indistinguishable from never having happened at all. There is no objective test by which the wrongdoing can be established. It’s a “perfect crime,” with no traces.
Suppose I break in to your house. But I don’t take anything, don’t do any harm, don’t leave so much as a fingerprint. You never learn of it. The neighbors don’t see it happen. Your home security system is never triggered; no camera takes my picture.
I’m the only one who knows… And I have a heart-attack and die…
Did a crime happen? How, exactly, does your epistemology establish this?
Is the distinction here one of omniscience vs. limited knowledge? Are we purporting some kind of “God’s Eye View,” in which, under “absolute objectivity,” an event happened? In contrast, am I depending too much on an interpretation based on subjective experience?
There are thousands of historical events which we will never, ever learn of. Spies in WWII. Clever thefts and lucky murders. Novels written but then burned before anyone could read them.
What does it mean to say “these things happened?” What does it mean to say “they didn’t?”