The right to vote was guaranteed by the Fifteenth Amendment; the use of a poll tax to restrict access to the polls was elminated by the Twenty-Fourth Amendment – both passed by legislatures.
Yes, and all those state and county and sundown laws that were passed subsequently that kept those amendments from being enforced were also passed by legislatures. It required a federal court (the Supreme one, actually) to make enforcement of those amendments effective.
It’s great the 24th Amendment and Civil Rights Act came about but those were only after near 100 years of attempts at disenfranchising the black population. Most of those attempts were struck down by the courts. I do not know but I would guess part of what helped the Civil Rights Act and amendment to get the support they did were the consistent failures in the courts at these attempts.
Even if that is not so, prior to the amendment and Civil Rights Act would you deem the court’s actions inappropriate as enacting social reform that overrode the will of legislatures?
Fascinating, but really not addressing my question to jayjay and Skald. To remind you, here is Skald’s quote:
No, because those measures had the effect of denying blacks the right to vote, whihc ran afoul of the Fifteenth Amendment. FIRST the legislature acted, THEN the courts applied that law. The courts didn’t carve out bold new ground.
Well, Skald is right. White folk in Tennessee were not going to go for it. White folk in Tennessee got overridden by the courts and then the federal government (Civil Rights Act) and an amendment thrust on them.
Pretty sure Tennessee, left to itself, would have gone there on its own.
ETA: Admittedly I do not know Tennessee’s politics…maybe they were cool about it but clearly some states were not cool about it. Insert an antebellum state of your choice as appropriate.
“The enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.”
If you can make a case for an unenumerated right, that the court agrees with, then the Constitution says it shan’t be denied, even if the majority wants it.
The problem with your theory was the subject of some thought by the founding fathers. They were concerned with “tryanny by the majority” and the sort of decisions that would be reached by the masses in the throes of heated something or another.
They took pains to avoid direct representation because they didn’t actually trust the masses to make decisions only to choose the people who would make the decisions and originally they didn’t even choose those people. They chose the people who would choose the people who would make the decisions (see Senators and President).
While the 9th amendment sounds nice it is almost never cited by the courts. Apparently they do not know what to do with it so, while it is there, it apparently is cited about as much as the 3rd Amendment.