Is the Admin using the DoJ for partisan electoral purposes a crime, or is it not?

I don’t want to hijack this thread, but just want to say that just because the late CJ Rhenquist believed that the CJ’s role in an impeachment trial was to impersonate a potted plant doesn’t mean that was correct.

What’s the difference? Political Question:

Sounds exactly like what I said above. Seems to me that that is just one flavor of judicial restraint.

Nor that it set any binding precedent in that regard (see post #37).

Yes. I probably should have said that the senate seems to have applied a higher standard than has the House, at least so far.

I think that’s built into the nature of the process, and that the House should set the bar lower. The House serves the function of indictment, the Senate serves the function of determining guilt. The House doesn’t determine guilt or innocence, only that the matter should be referred to the Senate for them to do so.

I’m sure. But, if it can be proven Rove was behind all this – is that something for which he can be, not impeached, but indicted?

Part of Ms. Goodling’s testimony focused on her understanding (based on her claims of what she was told by superiors), that the DAs were not Civil Service. This implies that they were/should have been Civil Service. Firing them without (adequate) cause might, then, have been a violation either of statute or of regulation. However, even if their firing was legal, (finding some fig leaf conditions to show dismissal for cause), applying political rules to the hiring of their replacements would have been a clear violation of the Civil Service laws (or regulations).

HOWEVER, the preceding is contingent upon whether the DA position is or is not Civil Service and I have not yet seen the answer to that question.

That’s true. It isn’t a precedent in the stare decisis sense of the word, just in the ordinary, garden-variety sense of the word, such as, “there is precedent for the raspberries ripening before the end of June around here.”

The 93 United States Attorneys are political appointees. As Pubs never tire of pointing out, Clinton replaced all of them when he took office; it’s lawful and traditional, when a new administration takes over. WRT lower-ranking DoJ lawyers, Goodling almost certainly violated civil service rules – not in firing them, but in hiring them, after first sounding out their politics and screening out those deemed insufficiently right-wing.

It’s “United States Attorney” in this topic, not DA. They serve at the President’s pleasure, but *assistant * USA’s are civil servants.

IF Rove, or Gonzales, tried to stop an ongoing investigation by firing the USA (i.e. by Paul Charlton in Arizona of Rep. Rick Renzi, link), that would seem to be describable as “obstruction of justice”, wouldn’t it?

With the Goodling confession, it was Immigration Judges

Update: Rep. John Conyers now (kindasorta) supports impeachment.

From Salon:

Here’s a point John Mace brought up on p.4 of this Pit thread: Assuming this is an impeachable and/or criminal matter, can it necessarily be used to impeach Bush? Or only Gonzalez? Rove was almost certainly behind it, probably Cheney too – but is it possible they just gave W papers to sign but never discussed with him the plan or its purpose?

What did the president know and when did he know it?

(I know, I know, it might be a meaningless question in his case. “George Washington could not tell a lie, Richard Nixon could not tell the truth, and George Bush cannot tell the difference.”)