I don’t think there’s anything wrong with it, Left Hand of Dorkness.
But again, I’ve explained in quite some detail with a deductive proof sketch why it is entirely compatible with the common parlance. As I’ve said a couple of times now, if I made some specific error, you should be able to point it out; and if I have not, why is the conclusion wrong when the premises and inferences are right? It is easy to respond to a man who has written 5,000 words with a simple “I disagree”, but where is my alleged mistake? On the other hand, there is also the complaint that there is no mapping at all between SB and NE, and the complaint is made without a shred of supportive reasoning. I think someone (it might have been you) even suggested that some philosophers find the whole concept meaningless. But I’ve provided documentation that philosophers for hundreds of years have accepted this mapping and believe it to be coherent even when they find the proof unsound. It seems to me that the onus is on those who claim something is amiss — despite a centuries old history for this argument all the way to modern day modal constructions in which no one of any status has ever protested this mapping — to show exactly why, beyond merely, “It doesn’t satisfy me personally or the people I know at work,” or something to that effect. If I have made an error, I will own up to it and admit it. But show it to me.
The only reason why a significant number will not answer NE is because a significant number have not studied philosophy. It is a technical term of the trade, as it were. That’s like complaining that you might ask a random sampling of people what a Black Hole is, and that a very few will answer “Singularity”. So therefore, singularity is an unreasonable term.
I’m sorry, and with all due respect, but that’s just ridiculous as I see it. Examine their words:
Kant: “…and thus reason concludes that the Supreme Being, as the primal basis of all things, possesses an existence which is absolutely necessary”.
Kant flat out equates the two, and he is possibly the widest read philosopher in existence, after perhaps Aristotle.
Descartes: "…but in no case is necessary existence so contained, except in the case of the idea of God."
Descartes connects NE directly to the term God itself.
Leibniz: Therefore this degree of grandeur and perfection, or rather this perfection which consists in existence, is in this supreme all-great, all-perfect being: for otherwise some degree would be wanting to it, contrary to its definition.
By “perfection which consists in existence”, Leibniz means NE. Since the eleventh century, necessary existence has been understood to mean ontological perfection (perfection which consists in existence). And Leibniz ties this directly to supreme (all-great, all-perfect) being.
**Clark: God’s necessary existence is a presupposition of the existence of anything at all. **
And the Calvanist ties NE directly to God.
How you could possibly read these as not mapping SB to NE to God is unclear. You may disagree with the proof all you like, but I would greatly appreciate an acknowledgment that you were mistaken about what these men wrote. I have read the whole books, and I assure you that I am not misrepresenting them here, which is tantamount to what you’re saying.