# Is there no reference to Jesus in first christian century

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-there-no-reference-to-jesus-in-first-christian-century/668870>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [September 14, 2013, 10:55pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-there-no-reference-to-jesus-in-first-christian-century/668870 "2013-09-14T22:55:29Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 65

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**Author:** ![Exapno\_Mapcase](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/exapno_mapcase/32/1051_2.png) [@Exapno\_Mapcase](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Exapno_Mapcase)\
**Post date:** [September 19, 2013, 3:10am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-there-no-reference-to-jesus-in-first-christian-century/668870/65 "2013-09-19T03:10:46Z")

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You’re getting it perfectly.

> [@Billy Meier, whats the verdict?](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/billy-meier-whats-the-verdict/669000/54):
>
> The Meier case is designed with plausible deniability which means it cannot be absolutely proven nor debunked.

Plausible deniability. If it worked for the CIA, it can work for anybody. Even the Catholic Church.

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