# Is this an accurate historical statement?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512>\
**Category:** Great Debates\
**Created:** [November 27, 2001, 3:47pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512 "2001-11-27T15:47:25Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 6\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![Enderw24](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/ba9def/32.png) [@Enderw24](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enderw24)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 3:47pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/1 "2001-11-27T15:47:25Z")

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I’m writing a letter to the editor regarding an editorial that ran in today’s paper. I already know most of the points I want to make, but I wanted to run something by the teeming thousands for their valuable input.  
This paragraph was originally in the article:

> [@](#):
>
> The first claim made by Quran proponents is that Islamic Society had a huge imact on the development of Western Civ, and thus the work ought to be included in the course. Initially, this argument is appealing. After all, Islamic scholars preserved the works of ancient Greece and Rome and also made numerous scientific advances of their own. The Islamic empire stretched well into Europe and wasn’t expelled until 1492 (which is why Columbus managed to get his little project funded).

I’m particularly interested in the accuracy of the last sentence. What exactly did the Islamic Empire have to do with Ferdinand and Isabella’s ability to fund a voyage? Did the Islamic Empire really stretch through Spain? How much of this paragraph is true?

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**Author:** ![Neurotik](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/n/91b2a8/32.png) [@Neurotik](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Neurotik)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 3:58pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/2 "2001-11-27T15:58:05Z")

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Indeed, Islamic occupation did indeed stretch into Spain. In fact, Islamic armies conquered all of Spain in the early Middle Ages and portions of southern France before being stopped at Tours. European Christians began a long, long, long battle to rid Spain of the Moors (Muslims). The last stronghold fell during Ferdinand and Isabella’s reign, allowing them to consolidate control of the peninsula and freed up funds to give our friend Columbus. So far as I can tell, the entire paragraph is accurate.

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**Author:** ![Jonathan\_Chance](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/jonathan_chance/32/701_2.png) [@Jonathan\_Chance](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Jonathan_Chance)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 4:18pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/3 "2001-11-27T16:18:49Z")

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Yes, Neurotik has it right. The funding for the western voyage was held up until the needs of the war were less pressing.

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**Author:** ![SuaSponte](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/67e7ee/32.png) [@SuaSponte](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/SuaSponte)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 4:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/4 "2001-11-27T16:20:41Z")

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One thing the quote gets wrong is the “Islamic empire.” By the time of the conquest of Spain, Islam was no longer a unitary state.

Sua

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**Author:** ![Tamerlane](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/tamerlane/32/7602_2.png) [@Tamerlane](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Tamerlane)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 5:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/5 "2001-11-27T17:15:13Z")

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What **Neurotik, Jonathan Chance,** and **SuaSponte** said.

In addition though, don’t forget that at the same time Islam was on the retreat in western Europe, it was expanding in eastern Europe under the Ottomans. The Ottomans fist European foothold was established at Gallipoli in 1354. By 1492 they held what would today be mainland Greece, Albania, Macedonia, most of Serbia ( up to the gates of Belgrade ), Bosnia, Bulgaria, and southern Roumania ( Wallachia ).

In light of that, I would amend your sentence a bit and say, “…wasn’t expelled from _Spain_ until…”.

- Tamerlane

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**Author:** ![Enderw24](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/ba9def/32.png) [@Enderw24](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enderw24)\
**Post date:** [November 27, 2001, 5:22pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/is-this-an-accurate-historical-statement/95512/6 "2001-11-27T17:22:50Z")

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This is what’s great about this board. I can post a query and get all these responses in just an hour.  
I wrote the letter and just finished sending it off. Thanks to you guys, I didn’t include anything regarding that paragraph. No need to blast it if there isn’t a problem with it, right?
