Is time really the fourth dimension?

This has been pretty well answered above, but here’s my take on an explanation in layman’s terms:

Say you have a bunch of objects whose positions are described in a 3-dimensional (x,y,z) coordinate system. One way that you can change to a new coordinate system is by rotating your axes. One of the key properties of these rotations is that all the objects have the same lengths in the new coordinate system as they did in the old coordinate system. Note that this isn’t true of other coordinate transformations such as stretching one of the axes.

Now, in special relativity that there is another kind of coordinate transformation called a “boost”, which corresponds to going from one reference frame to another. Basically, you’re changing your definition of what it means to be “at rest.” (i.e., zero speed). Einstein argued that the laws of physics should still be valid regardless of how we define “at rest”, and showed that in order for this to be true our definitions of lengths and time intervals have to change whenever we redefine “at rest”.

So unlike rotations, boosts don’t keep length (in the usual 3-dimensional sense) unchanged. But a mathematician named Minkowski (who happened to be a former professor of Einstein’s) realized that boosts (as well as rotations) do preserve a sort of four dimensional length involving three dimensions of space and one dimension of time. So you can treat boosts and (spatial) rotations on equal footing, as rotations in a kind of four-dimensional spacetime. (Einstein drew heavily on this notion of four-dimensional spacetime when he extended special relativity to the general theory of relativity.)

However, the formula for these four dimensional lengths (called “spacetime intervals”) is a little different than the ordinary distance formula.
Instead of L[sup]2[/sup] = x[sup]2[/sup] + y[sup]2[/sup] + z[sup]2[/sup]
we now have L[sup]2[/sup] = x[sup]2[/sup] + y[sup]2[/sup] + z[sup]2[/sup] - t[sup]2[/sup]

Note that t[sup]2[/sup] has a different sign than all the other dimensions. That’s what people mean when talking about time being an imaginary number – it’s square is negative instead of positive. (There should also be a factor of c in there – i.e., the speed of light – which can be thought of as a conversion factor to put time in the same units as distance.)

Long story short: Time is the “fourth dimension” in the sense that it’s convenient to do physics working in a four-dimensional “spacetime” – but the metric (i.e., distance formula) of this spacetime isn’t just the usual Euclidean metric with four coordinates instead of three – time is singled out by having a different sign. Getting back to the original question, I suppose time can be thought of as “a dimension in the geometric sense”, only it’s not Euclidean geometry you’re doing.

Quantum mechanics has a separate time coordinate from the get-go. Look at the Schrödinger equation on a line, for example:

\left[i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}+U(x)\right]\psi(x,t)=0

Two space derivatives and one time derivative. Definitely not Lorentz-invariant.

The Heisenberg picture isn’t any better. It assumes a universal time coordinate ticking away to goven the unitary evolution of all systems.

There are a number of time-invariant solutions for the Schrödinger equation for various simple systems, and in fact (in my limited experience) the bulk of analytical solutions for the wave equation are time invariant. Most of these are harmonic scenerios, and in general form I suppose that you’re right, time definitely has a preferred direction. Upon doing some reading, I see that there are postulates for QED having a unidirectional time axis as well based upon the relative probabilities of photon absorption in one direction versus the other.

Stranger

Hold on there. You’re mixing up time-invariance – a function having a time-derivative of zero – and Lorentz invariance – the lack of a preferred direction for time. The latter is what makes sense in the context of this thread.

Oh, and you actually don’t know any time-invariant solutions to the Schrödinger equation. What you know are solutions to the reduced equation once you’ve used separation-of-variables to get rid of the time coordinate.

Didn’t Sagan imply that we live in a real 4 dimensional world? I thought his dots-on-a-ballon was a three dimensional representation of that.