# Italicized Words in Scofield Bible **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [January 27, 2008, 5:17pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/italicized-words-in-scofield-bible/435202 "2008-01-27T17:17:44Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 4\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![Fiddle\_Peghead](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/fiddle_peghead/32/3506_2.png) [@Fiddle\_Peghead](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Fiddle_Peghead)\ **Post date:** [January 27, 2008, 5:17pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/italicized-words-in-scofield-bible/435202/1 "2008-01-27T17:17:44Z")
Why are certain words in the Scofield Reference Bible in italics? I.e.: “And out of the ground the Lord God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought _them_ unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that _was_ the name thereof.” I suspect that it is not for emphasis. ---
**Author:** ![Rube\_E.Tewesday](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/f0a364/32.png) [@Rube\_E.Tewesday](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Rube_E.Tewesday)\ **Post date:** [January 27, 2008, 5:28pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/italicized-words-in-scofield-bible/435202/2 "2008-01-27T17:28:36Z")
I assume the Scofield Reference Bible uses the King James translation as the starting point. The King James translators used italics to indicate where they filled in words that did not actually appear in the original text. Reading some passages while ignoring the italicized words can be pretty interesting. ---
**Author:** ![Polycarp](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/p/82dd89/32.png) [@Polycarp](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Polycarp)\ **Post date:** [January 27, 2008, 5:31pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/italicized-words-in-scofield-bible/435202/3 "2008-01-27T17:31:11Z")
Italicized words in several translations of the Bible, but notably the KJV, indicate that they are not found in the original Hebrew or Greek, but are supplied to bring the statement into the demands of English syntax. That is, in your example, the"them" is clearly implied in Hebrew syntax but does not actually occur as a pronoun; English usage mandates it, so the translators supply it. An even better example is 2 Timothy 3:16, often cited by Biblical literalists as self-endorsing proof of plenary Biblical inspiration: “All scripture _is_ given by inspiration of God, _and is_ profitable for doctrine, _for_ reproof, _for_ correction, _and for_ instruction in righteousness…” In the original Greek, the entire verse (along with 3:17) is an extended series of phrases in apposition to a reference to “the Scriptures” [meaning the Tanakh, the Jewish Bible] which Timothy learned in childhood from his (formerly Jewish) mother and grandmother, alluded to in 3:15. The “sentence” in 3:16 is an artifact of English prose. A more literal translation might be: “Remember the [Jewish] Scriptures that you have learned since earliest childhood, and from whom you learned them, all written, given by God’s breath (_theopneustos_), profitable for doctrine, for reproof…” ---
**Author:** ![Fiddle\_Peghead](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/fiddle_peghead/32/3506_2.png) [@Fiddle\_Peghead](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Fiddle_Peghead)\ **Post date:** [January 27, 2008, 6:07pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/italicized-words-in-scofield-bible/435202/4 "2008-01-27T18:07:29Z")
I thought I remembered that was the case from my back in my church-going days. Thanks, all.