# "I've not" vs. "I haven't"- is one more correct than the other? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [March 5, 2004, 3:26pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707 "2004-03-05T15:26:27Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 12\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![katie1341](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/91b2a8/32.png) [@katie1341](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/katie1341)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 3:26pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/1 "2004-03-05T15:26:27Z")
I have a friend who considers herself to be quite the grammar expert. She insists that “I’ve not” is more correct than “I haven’t”. Seems to me that they are both contractions of “I have not”, and they are equally correct, although “I haven’t” is probably more frequently used. ``` Who's right? ``` ---
**Author:** ![Nametag](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/nametag/32/406_2.png) [@Nametag](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Nametag)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 3:37pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/2 "2004-03-05T15:37:02Z")
Horsefeathers. “I’ve not” is more likely to be found in British period novels and other romantic trash; outside of that, there is no recommendation for it at all. In daily American speech, it’s “precious.” That’s not to say that I don’t use it myself, but only sparingly, and for effect. (I’m only a _little_ precious…") ---
**Author:** ![WotNot](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/w/e19b73/32.png) [@WotNot](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/WotNot)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 4:59pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/3 "2004-03-05T16:59:15Z")
> [@Nametag](#): > > Horsefeathers. “I’ve not” is more likely to be found in British period novels and other romantic trash… Or in modern British speech. I seem to use the two more or less interchangeably. I’d be surprised if we didn’t hear from somewhere in North America where it’s common, too. ---
**Author:** ![RealityChuck](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/realitychuck/32/195_2.png) [@RealityChuck](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RealityChuck)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 6:42pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/4 "2004-03-05T18:42:45Z")
Both are correct. Other than that, there really aren’t degrees of correctness. One usage may be more common (in this case, probably “I haven’t,” in the US, at least), but no grammarian would presume to consider one usage more correct than another. ---
**Author:** ![Kizarvexius](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/da6949/32.png) [@Kizarvexius](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kizarvexius)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 8:02pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/5 "2004-03-05T20:02:12Z")
I do tend to use “I’ve not” in casual speech, even though I don’t think I’ve ever heard anyone else say it in my life. I’ve not noticed anyone looking at me funny though. Of course, I say things like “You ought’nt to do that”, so those who know me are used to my somewhat archaic speech mannerisms. ---
**Author:** ![Balthisar](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/balthisar/32/2825_2.png) [@Balthisar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Balthisar)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 8:25pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/6 "2004-03-05T20:25:41Z")
I use 'em both, depending on what I want to emphasize. “I haven’t been to London before.” Casual enough. “I’ve not been to London before, officer, so I can’t be the killer.” I little more emphatic, in my mind, at least. ---
**Author:** ![pulykamell](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/pulykamell/32/3166_2.png) [@pulykamell](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/pulykamell)\ **Post date:** [March 5, 2004, 10:51pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/7 "2004-03-05T22:51:52Z")
> [@Kizarvexius](#): > > Of course, I say things like “You ought’nt to do that”, so those who know me are used to my somewhat archaic speech mannerisms. Hmm…“ought” is not supposed to take an infinitve after it, is it? It should be “You oughtn’t do that.” Right? Or is this infinitive part of the archaic structure? ---
**Author:** ![Kizarvexius](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/da6949/32.png) [@Kizarvexius](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kizarvexius)\ **Post date:** [March 6, 2004, 12:04am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/8 "2004-03-06T00:04:07Z")
> [@pulykamell](#): > > Hmm…“ought” is not supposed to take an infinitve after it, is it? It should be “You oughtn’t do that.” Right? Or is this infinitive part of the archaic structure? Since you would say “You ought **to** do that”, then (I believe) the correct negative is “You ought not to do that”. Modern usage renders the “to” optional in the negative. ---
**Author:** ![moriah](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/b2d939/32.png) [@moriah](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/moriah)\ **Post date:** [March 6, 2004, 1:58am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/9 "2004-03-06T01:58:02Z")
> [@katie1341](#): > > I have a friend who considers herself to be quite the grammar expert. She insists that “I’ve not” is more correct than “I haven’t”. Seems to me that they are both contractions of “I have not”, and they are equally correct, although “I haven’t” is probably more frequently used. > > ``` > Who's right? > > ``` Google fight! I have not – 1.78 million hits I haven’t – 3.2 million hits I’ve not – .35 million hits [And the results of other contractional google fights.](http://boards.straightdope.com/sdmb/showthread.php?t=200807&highlight=contractions) Peace. ---
**Author:** ![pulykamell](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/pulykamell/32/3166_2.png) [@pulykamell](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/pulykamell)\ **Post date:** [March 6, 2004, 4:26am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/10 "2004-03-06T04:26:44Z")
> [@Kizarvexius](#): > > Since you would say “You ought **to** do that”, then (I believe) the correct negative is “You ought not to do that”. Modern usage renders the “to” optional in the negative. :smack: Duh! Of course. ---
**Author:** ![LSLGuy](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/lslguy/32/5813_2.png) [@LSLGuy](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/LSLGuy)\ **Post date:** [March 6, 2004, 1:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/11 "2004-03-06T13:15:32Z")
I would argue that correct usage is “You ought do that” and therefore “you ought not do that” and “you oughtn’t do that” are the correct negative forms. “You ought **to** do that” sounds to me a lot like “You should try and do that”, where the ignorant idiom “try and” rears its ugly head. The “to” is strictly unnecessary and borders on being jarringly wrong. Then again, I have a fairly predantic speaking style for an American, so maybe it’s just me. ---
**Author:** ![Shrinking\_Violet](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/df705f/32.png) [@Shrinking\_Violet](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Shrinking_Violet)\ **Post date:** [March 6, 2004, 2:02pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/ive-not-vs-i-havent-is-one-more-correct-than-the-other/232707/12 "2004-03-06T14:02:27Z")
> [@LSLGuy](#): > > I would argue that correct usage is “You ought do that” and therefore “you ought not do that” and “you oughtn’t do that” are the correct negative forms. > > “You ought **to** do that” sounds to me a lot like “You should try and do that”, where the ignorant idiom “try and” rears its ugly head. The “to” is strictly unnecessary and borders on being jarringly wrong. > > Then again, I have a fairly predantic speaking style for an American, so maybe it’s just me. I’ve never heard this sentence without the “to”. [Merriam-Webster](http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?book=Dictionary&va=ought) describes it as a **verbal auxiliary** , and gives no examples without the “to”. “You ought do that” sounds plain _wrong_ to me.