# Lack of affirmative consent as rape?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lack-of-affirmative-consent-as-rape/506884>\
**Category:** Great Debates\
**Created:** [August 18, 2009, 8:32pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lack-of-affirmative-consent-as-rape/506884 "2009-08-18T20:32:09Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 54

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**Author:** ![Freudian\_Slit](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/f/5daacb/32.png) [@Freudian\_Slit](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Freudian_Slit)\
**Post date:** [August 20, 2009, 5:34pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lack-of-affirmative-consent-as-rape/506884/54 "2009-08-20T17:34:43Z")

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> [@DianaG](#):
>
> Sure it is. It’s not _eagerness_, but it IS consent. They’re not the same thing.

I guess that’s an interesting question. I know I’ve read about scenarios where the guy asks the woman for sex a few times, she says no. He asks again and she kind of just lies there ignoring him, and he takes that as yes. She meant, “No,” and she was sick of him asking and just kind of gave in. I don’t know if that’s rape in any meaningful sense of the word. It certainly doesn’t sound all that sexy and if I were in that situation I’d just say, “No.” Or if someone started to initiate sex without asking–I’m not sure my default position would be, “Oh no, he’ll flip out and kill me if I say no, so I’ll just get it over with.” Is silence indicative of consent?

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