Yipes! I go a away for a day and I come back to find that I’m “wrong.” No indication that my interlocutor even understood my argument or my point; I’m just wrong. But then, perhaps I was a bit hasty, and I didn’t really make my subtext clear. I was trying to accomplish two things.
First, I was trying to address the original question, which I understood as “does a collimated beam–a laser for example–obey the inverse square law?” My answer was that, to the extent that a laser beam is, in fact, collimated, it obeys the inverse square law as it is commonly understood, provided that you recognize that the “point source” involved is virtual and that you correctly identify where it is. In a perfectly collimated beam, the virtual point source is an infinite distance “upstream” in the beam. This is basic geometric optics. It is also easily demonstrated by passing a laser beam through a converging lens and noting that the beam focuses to a point. If you were foolish enough to look into the business end of a laser with a telescope (or even without one) you could see the virtual point source way out there at (or near) infinity.
The complication, as ZenBeam has been at pains to point out, is that description of the collimation of real laser beams is complicated by the beam waist effect and by the fact the for most practical exit apertures, Fraunhofer diffraction plays an important role in shaping the beam profile as a function of distance along the optical axis. More on this in a moment.
My second objective (and at this I simply failed) was that I wanted to bring out that the inverse square law is a property of light itself, not a property of some kinds of sources of light. There are no exceptions to the inverse square law. Hence my initial remark that laser light obeys the inverse square law.
Rigorously put, the inverse square law states that the power density of light propagating along a ray varies with displacement along the ray as the inverse of the square of the radius of curvature of the wavefront. The most obvious application of this principle is to describe the falloff of intensity from a “point source.” Hence the simplified definition cited in elementary textbooks and encyclopedia articles. The light bulb is the canonical example of a source which is supposed to obey the inverse square law–but it will come as no surprise to the erudite followers of this thread that it does so only approximately, and then only at distances large compared to the diameter of the bulb. However (fanfare, please) you can predict very accurately the power density as a function of distance by using the rigorous statement of the inverse square law in an appropriately detailed calculation.
So yes, ZB, if you get a really tiny photometer probe and run it down the axis of a laser beam, and record the output as a function of distance from the center of the laser instrument, the output coupler, or the beam waist point, or wherever, you won’t get Eo/z^2. At least not until you get way out past the Rayleigh length. My point is that you will get Eo/R^2 where R is the local radius of curvature of the wavefront. That value of R corresponds to the position of the virtual point source.
So what’s the value of R? Well, to respond to your challenge, ZB: in a system with no waist, z0=infinity, and the equation is satisfied when R = z0. This is the simple case I started with.
In a system with a waist, it’s a bit more complicated, and we’re getting beyond my expertise. But what it looks like, is that on axis, the local radius of curvature is negative inside the waist point, passes through infinite (i.e. plane) at the waist point, and becomes positive outside. Thus, the value of R changes with z–and rather dramatically.
But what really scares me about this analysis, is this: my understanding of the origin of the beam waist is that it arises as a cavity effect of the standing wave pattern inside a laser cavity with non-planar endplates. The inverse square law applies to propagating radiation, so you have to be careful how you apply it in a standing wave situation. I’m also not entirely sure how a waist is formed outside a cavity. ZB, the equation you use for the beam power density looks to me like the inverse square of the beam width, for the waist region of a confocal cavity. How general is it? My (friendly) challenge to you is to derive the equation. I don’t have time to do the research to do it myself, and you seem to have expertise in lasers.
None of this treats the question of diffraction effects. The beam emerging from the end coupler (or beam waist) of a laser is subject to Fraunhofer diffraction at the aperture. The far-field divergence is due to this diffraction as well as emergence from the waist.
But enough. You can wake up now.
Zor, it’s nice to hear from you again.