# Lawyers and Privilege

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [November 29, 2016, 2:19pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378 "2016-11-29T14:19:12Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 20\
**Page:** 2

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**Author:** ![aldiboronti](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/9fc348/32.png) [@aldiboronti](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/aldiboronti)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 2:52pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/21 "2016-11-30T14:52:49Z")

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> [@Tired\_and\_Cranky](#):
>
> A lawyer can have clients who don’t pay him or her. Payment is irrelevant to determining whether there is an attorney-client relationship.

Misled by television again! In Breaking Bad Saul the lawyer says to Wilfred and his partner in crime, “Give me a dollar both of you. Now whatever you say to me is privileged.” I’m disappointed, I thought that show was well-researched.

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**Author:** ![Pantastic](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/p/3bc359/32.png) [@Pantastic](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Pantastic)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 2:53pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/22 "2016-11-30T14:53:44Z")

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> [@magnusblitz](#):
>
> Yeah, it’s unnecessary. I always chose to interpret that scene as Saul doing something that sounded lawyerly as a way of winning them over, even though he knows it doesn’t really matter.

I thought the same about that scene, he’s coming up with a way to convince the two people who took him to the desert at gunpoint that he’s on their side, not actually pulling a legal trick. Like he comments in the same episode, he picked a business name that sounds Jewish because a lot of his potential clients think a Jewish lawyer is better, not for any deeper reason, and I think that was the same kind of manipulation.

> [@UltraVires](#):
>
> I know that attorneys get nervous about this, but a read of the applicable rules show that there is really no danger in answering simple questions at parties or on a message board.

I think I’ll take the opinion of a lot of people people who have each studied the law for years, interpret the law as their job, and are the ones at risk of a problem if the interpretation is wrong over a casual layman’s reading. Every lawyer I’ve ever encountered thinks that answering legal questions casually on message boards has a significant risk. Not that it’s all that likely, but rather that if someone does think an attorney-client relationship has been created and goes to court based on that, it’s extremely expensive and can torpedo a career even if the court eventually rules in the lawyer’s favor. Taking ‘could wipe out savings or trash my career’ risks for the reward of ‘someone on a message board might be grateful, or might just flame me’ isn’t really a smart decision.

After all, if you actually know how to interpret the law better than the lawyers, you don’t actually have any use for their answer to the initial question in the first place, so why be concerned that they’re not giving their opinion on the initial question when they’re so clearly wrong about the question of whether there’s a risk to casual legal advice?

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**Author:** ![md2000](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/73ab20/32.png) [@md2000](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/md2000)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 2:54pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/23 "2016-11-30T14:54:58Z")

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> [@Jim\_B](#):
>
> Actually, I’m glad I found this thread. Because it brings up an interesting hypothetical legal question I have about the attorney-client privilege.
> 
> First of all, I already knew the privilege is absolute, for things done in the past–not the future. But that brings up an interesting hypothetical situation.
> 
> You go into your lawyers office. And you say, “By the way, I just killed someone in your waiting room. Better have your secretary clean up the blood”.
> 
> Is _ **that** _ privileged? It theoretically happened in the past. But it also just happened. Plus, it may arguably be a crime in progress (if the blood still needs to be cleaned up). So what it the ruling on all of this?
> 
> Also, as long as I’m on the subject, what do lawyers do when they think their client will someday re-offend? They can’t divulge what was said about their past actions. But still. And what about the injustice that someone else may suffer for a crime they didn’t commit, but at the same time they actually know their client was responsible? What happens then?
> 
> And please forgive me for taking this discussion in another direction. But I have wondered about these things for some time now.
> 
> 🙂

IANAL, but my guess:

Cleaning up a crime scene before it’s been processed is obstruction of justice. (Hiding or tampering with evidence). The only thing privilege would apply to is the confession. The lawyer is under no obligation to clean up after his client, and certainly not to hide his crimes.

I suppose the grey area is what happens when the police arrive? I assume as part of privilege, neither the lawyer nor his receptionist are obliged to divulge the name of a client? Similarly, they can’t talk about what was said, but I assume the receptionist is obliged to testify as to what she saw? That’s not covered I assume, even if the perp was a client; or does the privilege only apply afterwards, unless he was a client before the crime was committed? Or is he a client the moment he steps into the office?

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**Author:** ![Really\_Not\_All\_That\_Bright](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e8c25b/32.png) [@Really\_Not\_All\_That\_Bright](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Really_Not_All_That_Bright)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 3:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/24 "2016-11-30T15:00:02Z")

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> [@Pantastic](#):
>
> I think I’ll take the opinion of a lot of people people who have each studied the law for years, interpret the law as their job, and are the ones at risk of a problem if the interpretation is wrong over a casual layman’s reading. Every lawyer I’ve ever encountered thinks that answering legal questions casually on message boards has a significant risk. Not that it’s all that likely, but rather that if someone does think an attorney-client relationship has been created and goes to court based on that, it’s extremely expensive and can torpedo a career even if the court eventually rules in the lawyer’s favor. Taking ‘could wipe out savings or trash my career’ risks for the reward of ‘someone on a message board might be grateful, or might just flame me’ isn’t really a smart decision.

**UltraVires** _is_ a lawyer. And both sides are right. Technically, there is little to zero risk of creating an attorney/client relationship during a casual conversation on a message board. Practically, it’s a pain in the arse to have to answer a bar complaint (or a malpractice suit) so lawyers are more careful about this stuff than is perhaps reasonable.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![md2000](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/73ab20/32.png) [@md2000](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/md2000)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 3:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/25 "2016-11-30T15:03:25Z")

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I assume, too, once the lawyer is entangled, even peripherally, in the client’s crime - he pretty much has to recuse himself as he may be called as a witness over non-privileged details?

Is this an explicit conflict of interest rule? or did Law & Order lie to me?

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Northern\_Piper](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/northern_piper/32/5304_2.png) [@Northern\_Piper](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Northern_Piper)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 3:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/26 "2016-11-30T15:46:01Z")

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> [@Really\_Not\_All\_That\_Bright](#):
>
> **UltraVires** _is_ a lawyer. And both sides are right. Technically, there is little to zero risk of creating an attorney/client relationship during a casual conversation on a message board. Practically, it’s a pain in the arse to have to answer a bar complaint (or a malpractice suit) so lawyers are more careful about this stuff than is perhaps reasonable.

Exactly. I don’t disagree with **Ultra Vires** , but I don’t want the hassle of a cocktail party conversation being raised as my having given legal advice, even if I’m certain it wasn’t in a solicitor-client relationship.

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**Author:** ![Tired\_and\_Cranky](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/a87d85/32.png) [@Tired\_and\_Cranky](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Tired_and_Cranky)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 4:52pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/27 "2016-11-30T16:52:05Z")

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> [@Jim\_B](#):
>
> First of all, I already knew the privilege is absolute, for things done in the past–not the future. But that brings up an interesting hypothetical situation.
> 
> You go into your lawyers office. And you say, “By the way, I just killed someone in your waiting room. Better have your secretary clean up the blood”.
> 
> Is _ **that** _ privileged? It theoretically happened in the past. But it also just happened. Plus, it may arguably be a crime in progress (if the blood still needs to be cleaned up). So what it the ruling on all of this?

Privilege is not absolute. You should read this thread more closely.

The more ridiculous the hypothetical, the less fun they become to analyze. This one is really on the border so I’ll probably stop playing after this.

Murdering someone in the waiting room:

(1) probably isn’t confidential because it seemingly happened where the person could be readily observed and, in your hypothetical, the attorney was not even a witness to the events so it isn’t a privileged communication,

(2) the murder probably isn’t information provided to the lawyer in connection with the putative client’s representation because the lawyer wasn’t even a witness to the act (so the act didn’t provide any information to the lawyer) and the person had never consulted with the lawyer before the act so probably couldn’t reasonably be deemed to be a client or prospective client of the attorney up to the point of the murder,

(3) it’s arguable that the the statement to the lawyer after the murder wasn’t made for the purposes of seeking representation but rather was made for the purpose of seeking an accessory after the fact in cleaning up the crime scene. If the statement wasn’t made to seek legal advice, the person making it wouldn’t be a prospective client under the model rules because he wasn’t then consulting with the lawyer about the possibility of becoming a client,

(4) the putative client’s later request to clean up the blood would be in furtherance of a crime so the lawyer could not tell his secretary to clean up the blood. [Model Rule 1.2(d) says a lawyer can’t assist a client to commit a crime.]

Furthermore, the would-be client’s demand to clean up the blood would possibly trigger an exception to whatever dubious privilege claim he asserted – tampering with the evidence of a crime is generally a crime itself. Model Rule 1.6(b)(2) would allow the lawyer to disclose a confidence (like telling the police about the statement) to prevent the client from committing a crime (like tampering with a crime scene) that is reasonably certain to result in substantial injury to the financial interests of another person (which could happen happen if covering up the crime means that the murderer is never held civilly accountable for his crime - maybe this isn’t reasonably likely within the attorney’s knowledge but it could be).

The TL/DR version is there is a lot of reason to believe that the attorney could tell police everything he knows about these events and and statements without violating his duty of confidentiality. The only thing that _might_ be protected by privilege is the statement, “I just killed someone in your waiting room.” Chances are, in your hypothetical, he’s left enough evidence to go to jail even if the lawyer can’t testify about this particular statement.

> [@aldiboronti](#):
>
> Misled by television again! In Breaking Bad Saul the lawyer says to Wilfred and his partner in crime, “Give me a dollar both of you. Now whatever you say to me is privileged.” I’m disappointed, I thought that show was well-researched.

I think it’s perfect for a lot of reasons but not because it’s necessarily a perfect statement of the law.

(1) I don’t actually know if there are meaningful distinctions in New Mexico that would afford greater protections to the confidences of actual clients instead of prospective clients. If there are, the show may have been showing one instance when the difference was important and Saul Goodman was exactly right to insist on payment.

(2) Saul Goodman was stating his views on the law as a pretty decent solo practitioner, not as a perfect law-talking god. This seems like just the slightly mistaken view he might adopt in the heat of the moment to protect himself.

(3) There are slightly different protections in the model rules for current clients versus prospective clients. Why not have your prospective client hire you just to make sure, without investigating the legal nuances, that your clients get the benefit of the doubt?

(4) As people noted upthread, the idea might have been to convince his new client that the conversation is privileged. Even if Saul knew that the conversation with a prospective client is privileged, it would probably take him time and effort to explain the applicable professional conduct rules to his prospective client and convince them he was right. It’s easier to get a dollar from them and then have them rely on their previous conception that attorney-client privilege is “absolute” to use the words of one person in this thread.

There is another reason this moment on the show is brilliant. A truly good lawyer would want to understand whether representing his new client would present any insurmountable conflicts of interest with his existing clients. We can tell from this moment, and many others, that Saul is reckless in dispensing advice and completely indifferent to potential conflicts of interest he hasn’t considered. We know just what type of “_criminal lawyer_” he is.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![md2000](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/73ab20/32.png) [@md2000](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/md2000)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 5:34pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/28 "2016-11-30T17:34:13Z")

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We’ve all seen the typical L&O scenario where the clinic refuses to divulge its patient list or schedule - confidential, get a warrant. Also, the Private Eye whose client name is confidential, which I assume is not covered by any privilege other than “I refuse to answer your questions” and “get a warrant to look at my customer ledger”.

What about lawyers? Would the hypothetical client who comes in. “pays his $1” and then murders someone in the waiting room (then buggers off), still have his identity covered under attorney-client privilege? Or is only the content of the conversation the privileged part? Does the lawyer have to say “my client Jones was in the waiting room at the time”? Or as a person who is not charged, he can refuse to answer questions anyway? At what point is this concealing evidence?

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Loach](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/loach/32/350_2.png) [@Loach](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Loach)\
**Post date:** [November 30, 2016, 6:43pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/29 "2016-11-30T18:43:28Z")

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> [@aldiboronti](#):
>
> Misled by television again! In Breaking Bad Saul the lawyer says to Wilfred and his partner in crime, “Give me a dollar both of you. Now whatever you say to me is privileged.” I’m disappointed, I thought that show was well-researched.

I don’t know the scene you are talking about but there may be more to it. Three guys standing around conspiring to commit a crime are all criminals even if one is a lawyer. The lawyer in the group may later claim that he was acting as legal counsel and not a co-conspirator. In this case Saul may feel that receiving compensation is an additional piece of evidence to help his argument down the road if the need arises.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Melbourne](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/b5e925/32.png) [@Melbourne](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Melbourne)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 1:14am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/30 "2016-12-01T01:14:52Z")

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> [@Tired\_and\_Cranky](#):
>
> Model Rule 1.18 protects even “prospective clients” like this one before the lawyer has accepted them as clients (“Even when no client-lawyer relationship ensues, a lawyer who has learned information from a prospective client shall not use or reveal that information, except as Rule 1.9 would permit with respect to information of a former client.”).

I don’t know exactly what the rules are here or anywhere, but in Aus a lawyer is a part of the criminal justice system, and is not permitted to lie in court. If your client has committed murder, and confessed to you, you aren’t allowed to enter a not-guilty plea…

Around here, I think that the best you could hope for if you confessed, would be that the lawyer you confessed to would refuse to represent you. And even that would raise red flags everywhere.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![magnusblitz](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/b4bc9f/32.png) [@magnusblitz](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/magnusblitz)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 3:58am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/31 "2016-12-01T03:58:18Z")

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Lawyers in the US are considered “officers of the court” as well, and not supposed to lie to the court… which is why the whole concept of privilege exists, so no one can put the lawyer on the stand and force him to testify. Is it really that different in Australia?

Being in a situation where you can’t confess to your lawyer seems like a really good way to ensure lawyers won’t be fully prepared, since their clients can’t tell them anything about the crime.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![md2000](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/73ab20/32.png) [@md2000](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/md2000)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 1:38pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/32 "2016-12-01T13:38:55Z")

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Yes, that does not sound correct. A lawyer will plead how his client instructs him. From what I’ve read, a lawyer simply cannot make assertions, during questioning or opening and closing arguments, that he knows are false. She also cannot ask questions where she knows the answer will be perjured - i.e. cannot ask a question knowing it will result in a lie.

(From what I read “tell us what happened” is allowed, but if they know the alibi is fake, cannot ask for example “what bar were you while the murder happened across town”?)

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![aldiboronti](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/9fc348/32.png) [@aldiboronti](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/aldiboronti)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 1:55pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/33 "2016-12-01T13:55:53Z")

</div>

> [@Tired\_and\_Cranky](#):
>
> I think it’s perfect for a lot of reasons but not because it’s necessarily a perfect statement of the law.
> 
> (1) I don’t actually know if there are meaningful distinctions in New Mexico that would afford greater protections to the confidences of actual clients instead of prospective clients. If there are, the show may have been showing one instance when the difference was important and Saul Goodman was exactly right to insist on payment.
> 
> (2) Saul Goodman was stating his views on the law as a pretty decent solo practitioner, not as a perfect law-talking god. This seems like just the slightly mistaken view he might adopt in the heat of the moment to protect himself.
> 
> (3) There are slightly different protections in the model rules for current clients versus prospective clients. Why not have your prospective client hire you just to make sure, without investigating the legal nuances, that your clients get the benefit of the doubt?
> 
> (4) As people noted upthread, the idea might have been to convince his new client that the conversation is privileged. Even if Saul knew that the conversation with a prospective client is privileged, it would probably take him time and effort to explain the applicable professional conduct rules to his prospective client and convince them he was right. It’s easier to get a dollar from them and then have them rely on their previous conception that attorney-client privilege is “absolute” to use the words of one person in this thread.
> 
> There is another reason this moment on the show is brilliant. A truly good lawyer would want to understand whether representing his new client would present any insurmountable conflicts of interest with his existing clients. We can tell from this moment, and many others, that Saul is reckless in dispensing advice and completely indifferent to potential conflicts of interest he hasn’t considered. We know just what type of “_criminal lawyer_” he is.

Thank you, **Tired and Cranky** , for such a detailed and informative reply. I love that show; you’ve restored my faith in it. 🙂

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**Author:** ![Personal](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/p/b9bd4f/32.png) [@Personal](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Personal)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 2:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/34 "2016-12-01T14:01:49Z")

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> [@Northern\_Piper](#):
>
> Exactly. I don’t disagree with **Ultra Vires** , but I don’t want the hassle of a cocktail party conversation being raised as my having given legal advice, even if I’m certain it wasn’t in a solicitor-client relationship.

When I’m faced with such a situation, I preface any answer with, “In general, what happens in situations such as you’re describing is this, this and this. That may or may not hold true in your case, but in general that’s what occurs." Most people are smart enough to pick up on why I am answering in that manner.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Northern\_Piper](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/northern_piper/32/5304_2.png) [@Northern\_Piper](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Northern_Piper)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 2:36pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/35 "2016-12-01T14:36:27Z")

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> [@Melbourne](#):
>
> I don’t know exactly what the rules are here or anywhere, but in Aus a lawyer is a part of the criminal justice system, and is not permitted to lie in court. If your client has committed murder, and confessed to you, you aren’t allowed to enter a not-guilty plea…
> 
> Around here, I think that the best you could hope for if you confessed, would be that the lawyer you confessed to would refuse to represent you. And even that would raise red flags everywhere.

If that’s the principle governing lawyers in Australia, it’s quite different from other common law countries. A not guilty plea is not a statement of fact; it’s a legal statement that boils down to: “Prove it, Crown Prosecutor.” Defence counsel may be limited in what they can advance in court, based on what their client has told them, but it’s always open to defence to do their best to challenge the evidence put forward by the Crown.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![AK84](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/85e7bf/32.png) [@AK84](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/AK84)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 2:51pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/36 "2016-12-01T14:51:12Z")

</div>

> [@Melbourne](#):
>
> I don’t know exactly what the rules are here or anywhere, but in Aus a lawyer is a part of the criminal justice system, and is not permitted to lie in court. If your client has committed murder, and confessed to you, you aren’t allowed to enter a not-guilty plea…
> 
> Around here, I think that the best you could hope for if you confessed, would be that the lawyer you confessed to would refuse to represent you. And even that would raise red flags everywhere.

[QUOTE=Northern Piper]  
If that’s the principle governing lawyers in Australia, it’s quite different from other common law countries. A not guilty plea is not a statement of fact; it’s a legal statement that boils down to: “Prove it, Crown Prosecutor.” Defence counsel may be limited in what they can advance in court, based on what their client has told them, but it’s always open to defence to do their best to challenge the evidence put forward by the Crown.  
[/QUOTE]

Well it seems Australian rules are the same as other common law jurisdictions. The [Australian Bar Association Barrister Conduct Rules say on this point](http://www.nswbar.asn.au/circulars/2010/feb/rules.pdf)

> [@](#):
>
> A barrister briefed to appear in **criminal proceedings whose client confesses guilt to the  
> barrister but maintains a plea of not guilty**:  
> (a)\*\* should, subject to the client accepting the constraints set out in sub‐rules (b) to (h) but\*\*  
> _ **not otherwise, continue to act in the client’s defence;** _  
> (b) must not falsely suggest that some other person committed the offence charged;  
> (c) must not set up an affirmative case inconsistent with the confession;  
> (d) must ensure that the prosecution is put to proof of its case;  
> (e) may argue that the evidence as a whole does not prove that the client is guilty of the  
> offence charged;  
> (f) may argue that for some reason of law the client is not guilty of the offence charged;  
> (g) may argue that for any other reason not prohibited by (b) or (c) the client should not  
> be convicted of the offence charged; and  
> (h) must not continue to act if the client insists on giving evidence denying guilt or requires  
> the making of a statement asserting the client’s innocence.

They are the same as in other Common Law jurisdictions I know.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Fotheringay-Phipps](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/f/d9b06d/32.png) [@Fotheringay-Phipps](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Fotheringay-Phipps)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 3:10pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/37 "2016-12-01T15:10:39Z")

</div>

Here’s a question for legal people discussing lawyer/client privilege.

Suppose in some completely hypothetical situation 🙂 you are a non-lawyer - let’s just say an actuary, to pick an occupation at random :). You’re involved with a situation at your company in which you’re dealing with an E&O situation. What you’re being instructed to do is to copy the corporate E&O legal staff on all emails dealing with the situation, and to include in the header of the emails the phrase “privileged and confidential attorney-client communication”. The actual content of the emails, of course, is just actuarial discussions related to the calculations.

The idea, of course, is to prevent a search of emails from using these emails as some sort of evidence in the event of a lawsuit. My questions are:

[ul]  
[li]Is this legal or some sort of abuse of the system?[/li][li]Does it “work” as a practical matter? And if so, then what’s to prevent anyone from keeping anything confidential by pretending it’s attorney-client communication?[/li][li]Conversely, if it doesn’t work, then how does that come about? How would anyone find out that it’s not privileged info until they actually read it?[/li][/ul]

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![AK84](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/85e7bf/32.png) [@AK84](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/AK84)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 3:35pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/38 "2016-12-01T15:35:26Z")

</div>

> [@Fotheringay-Phipps](#):
>
> Here’s a question for legal people discussing lawyer/client privilege.
> 
> Suppose in some completely hypothetical situation 🙂 you are a non-lawyer - let’s just say an actuary, to pick an occupation at random :). You’re involved with a situation at your company in which you’re dealing with an E&O situation. What you’re being instructed to do is to copy the corporate E&O legal staff on all emails dealing with the situation, and to include in the header of the emails the phrase “privileged and confidential attorney-client communication”. The actual content of the emails, of course, is just actuarial discussions related to the calculations.
> 
> The idea, of course, is to prevent a search of emails from using these emails as some sort of evidence in the event of a lawsuit. My questions are:
> 
> [ul]  
> [li]Is this legal or some sort of abuse of the system?[/li][li]Does it “work” as a practical matter? And if so, then what’s to prevent anyone from keeping anything confidential by pretending it’s attorney-client communication?[/li][li]Conversely, if it doesn’t work, then how does that come about? How would anyone find out that it’s not privileged info until they actually read it?[/li][/ul]

1. It would be privileged communication **if** it is shared with the purposes of potentially giving legal advice. Discussions relating to actuarial calculations can certainly be those, if it’s related to actual or contemplated litigation or transactions.  
(Acturies also have confidentiality rules BTW).

2. No. It has to be as I said communication made for the purpose of legal advice.

3. Typically the way it’s done is that (if its litigation) then a request is made, the question of privilege is raised in opposition and then typically a judge rules on whether it can be shared or relased.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![Really\_Not\_All\_That\_Bright](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e8c25b/32.png) [@Really\_Not\_All\_That\_Bright](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Really_Not_All_That_Bright)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 7:25pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/39 "2016-12-01T19:25:32Z")

</div>

What **AK84** said. Putting “privileged” on correspondence doesn’t make it privileged. It’s intended to signal that the document is privileged and clue the reader in that they should stop reading if they’re not the intended recipient. Essentially, it’s meaningless.

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<div class="post-metadata">

**Author:** ![md2000](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/73ab20/32.png) [@md2000](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/md2000)\
**Post date:** [December 1, 2016, 9:52pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lawyers-and-privilege/773378/40 "2016-12-01T21:52:51Z")

</div>

I heard something similar, where some companies had been having their company lawyer sit in on meetings to create a cloak of confidentiality. Presumably somewhere along the meeting, they would ask, “so does any of this so far create legal issues?” I do have to wonder at what point a meeting becomes a confidential discussion with the lawyer?

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