# Looking for a reference to a misinterpretation of Aristotle.

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/looking-for-a-reference-to-a-misinterpretation-of-aristotle/800869>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [November 6, 2017, 7:44am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/looking-for-a-reference-to-a-misinterpretation-of-aristotle/800869 "2017-11-06T07:44:44Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![davidmich](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/e56c9b/32.png) [@davidmich](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/davidmich)\
**Post date:** [November 6, 2017, 7:44am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/looking-for-a-reference-to-a-misinterpretation-of-aristotle/800869/1 "2017-11-06T07:44:44Z")

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Hi  
I’m looking for a reference to a misinterpretation of Aristotle regarding the concept of nature serving the needs of man.

I had come across a reference (but no more) that Aristotle’s concept that nature was there solely to serve was was a misinterpretation. I would like to find an argument that dismantles this view. I look forward to your feedback.