As you posted a while back in another thread:
If it’s true, it CAN’T BE an inaccuracy. But what other sense would you prefer? Would you have prosecuted him simply because you knew what he meant? That was a major point of the play. Should we be doing that today?
If he didn’t mention the King, that was not treason and he did NOT break the law. And I’d be interested in the books and relevant cites.
He DID refuse to swear to the Act of Succession. The script does NOT ignore this. In the movie he even explains to Norfolk that imprisoning him for this was legal. But the reality was that he did NOT deny the King’s title in the legal sense required for treason. He was innocent of this and he was convicted and executed unjustly. If, as you contend, he broke the law, it’s up to you to explain why they didn’t prosecute him sooner AND had to rely on one person’s testimony AFTER he was sent to the Tower.