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What if they could prove she was using a cell phone when the accident happened? Would that be enough, or would they have to prove she knew this was a risky behavior?
In other words, is ignorance of risk a valid excuse? What of people (like some on this thread) who believe speeding is actually safer than obeying the speed limit?
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Typically, to prove Recklessness, state must prove (Beyond a Reasonable Doubt, natch) that she “averred to the risk.” Cognition of the risk is pretty important to proving the crime where Recklessness is required.
Ok, so every crime has two parts: the culpable Act and the culpable Mental State. For the most part, both must be present to form a crime. The Act alone, without the culpable mental state, is not necessarily a crime. Statutes which define laws generally posit a required mental state for each type of crime. For example, the charge of Murder generally requires Purpose, the most culpable mental state. A few types of crimes require no culpable mental state at all – this is called Strict Liability – but these never rise above the level of misdemeanors and often are restricted to Violations payable by a fine. The speed limit is a Violation and is a strict liability offense, so mental state is irrelevant.
The four levels of culpable mental states, from most to least, are Purpose (called Intent in some states), Knowledge, Recklessness and Negligence. Ignorance of the risk IS a complete defense if the required mental state of the crime is Knowledge. If the State fails to prove Beyond Reasonable Doubt that you knew something you were required to know, you are Not Guilty of THAT crime (you may well be guilty of another crime). Ignorance of the law itself is generally not a defense, UNLESS the statute specifically requires that knowledge.
The law in Illionois (as I read it, and I am a complete n00b) appears to follow the idea, enshrined in the Model Penal Code, that Recklessness is the minimum mental state to constitute a crime. Under this theory, an act which is merely Negligent (reasonable people would not have done it) is not a crime at all – just a civil harm (and by the way it is MUCH easier to prove liability in civil court than criminal court). It may seem pretty unfair, but its the way the Illinois legislature in its wisdom has chosen to define the crime of vehicular Homicide.
Clear as mud, eh?