"Nero fiddled while Rome Burned". FAKE NEWS? How much of History class is even true?

If you consider Henry V existing to be the only important factor in medieval life, you are right.

There were kings, there were nobles, there were serfs. That much has indeed not changed.

What has changed is the view that the pyramid of King - Noble - lesser noble- serf was the make up of society. What has been found is that there were many more people that fell outside this pyramid, that owned land and goods of their own. That the daily rule of law was not just the fickle rule of the bully noble.

That makes the feudal system not as special as it was thought to be but as normal as any other society with a monarch and an aristocracy.

Can we have some examples please? This thread is strangely short on actual data - lots of people saying what isn’t true, but very few saying what is.

I suggest you do some reading using the Amazon ‘Look Inside’ feature in the book I recommended above,

Medieval Europe (2016) by Prof. Chris Wickham

and in

A Short History of the Middle Ages by Prof. Barbara Rosenwein

Have you read these books? If so, could you give us something - an anecdote, even - that supports your claim?

Don’t expect other people to chew your food for you. :slight_smile:

If you want real knowledge you have to go out and get it yourself.

You’ve been here long enough to know that that’s not how this board works. You made a claim, now support it in your own words.

No, I’m not going to, because I’ve wasted enough time on this already.

Real knowledge of any subject doesn’t come from glib soundbites and a few superficial facts.

If you really want to understand the complexities of medieval society, then no discussion here will give that to you. If you just want to argue for the sake of arguing and massage your ego, you’ll have to do it with someone else.

What do you mean, “massaging my ego”? I honestly came here to read how medieval European wasn’t feudal, but no-one’s willing to tell me anything! Do you have any idea how frustrating that is!?

I Looked Inside the Wickham book. About 7/8ths of the way down, he discusses feudalism. His reference point is Henry II’s failed campaign to claim Toulouse. The failure occurred despite Henry’s overwehlming strategic and logistical advantage (he was there firstest with the mostest). Louis VII was Henry’s liege lord, to whom “he had done homage and sworn fidelity”. When Louis arrived at Toulouse to direct the defences personally, Henry felt he had no choice but to call off the attack. He could not attack his sworn lord, still less kill or capture or him. What would that imply for his own relations with his barons, who stood in the same relationship to him that he did to Louis?

I can’t copy/paste, so I shall type out some short excerpts:

On feudalism - the way I tend to look at it is like this.

There term is a perfectly useful one, in that it describes a very real phenomenon - the exchange of land for loyalty and military service.

The problem with its use in the notion, perhaps unconsciously used by some historians, that this was a formal, unified system that was similar in all places and over time. Though the critics perhaps make too much of their target’s use of this notion in ways that risk straw-manning. I suspect most if not all historians these days (users of the term or not) would readily admit that “feudalism” varied greatly over time and place, and competed and interacted with other ways of organizing society.

The other criticism of the term is that, if it isn’t a formal, unified system that was similar in all places and over time, then it is too incoherent to be useful. This is really a battle of lumpers and splitters, though. I tend to side with the lumpers: there is enough similarity in various ways of organizing land for loyalty and service to make “feudalism” a perfectly useful term.

Another thought: perhaps the resistance to use of the term “feudalism” is in response to the perceived over-rigidity of Marxist-inspired historical theory, which really tended to see feudalism as a historical stage ('and now we see the decay of feudal society in a struggle with emerging capitalism, to reach a synthesis … ').

From discussions about ‘feudalism’ on an academic forum for medieval history (MEDIEV-L) in 2012:

(Most of the participants are professors of medieval history.)

2015 discussion on the same forum:

I give up.

All I asked is for someone to tell me why “feudalism” is an incorrect term. As in, “Feudalism is a poor term for defining medieval society because A, B and C.” You know, **actual arguments, backed by facts. **

Instead, all you’re giving me are meta-arguments. So to hell with it.

Sounds like the typical academic tempest in a teapot over terminology. The splitters are “lording” it (pun mildly intended) over the lumpers.

Happens all the time in lots of different contexts. (‘I’m such an expert, I never say a word about anything other than the state of society in Oxford in 1252 - those who generalize more than that are ignoramuses not worth talking to’ - ‘oh yeah? Well, I only ever talk about monks in Oxford in 1252’).

“Feudalism” has become a dirty work, because it is associated with lumpers.

There may be more to it than that, but so far, I’m not convinced.

Why don’t you read the original link that I gave above. There’s a good, clear explanation of what you’re asking.

The F-Word - The Problem with Feudalism

For those who don’t even want to click on the link, here’s an extract:

Agreed.

It is a perfectly reasonable discussion to have, but it is completely an argument on interpretation.

I’m with Alessan - the feudalism posts and GW’s links are long on criticism but short on details.

Fortunately, one of the links contained a useful reference, Steven Lane’s review of Reynolds’s Fiefs and Vassals, presently at Journal of the Scholarship of Teaching and Learning

Some meaty quotes: