# NFL records through Week 2 (math question)

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070>\
**Category:** The Game Room\
**Created:** [September 17, 2013, 5:30pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070 "2013-09-17T17:30:59Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 11\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![etv78](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/d78d45/32.png) [@etv78](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/etv78)\
**Post date:** [September 17, 2013, 5:30pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/1 "2013-09-17T17:30:59Z")

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i noticed that 8 teams are 2-0 and 8 are 0-2, exactly 1/4 of the league. is this a coincidence or just basic math/probability?

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**Author:** ![Little\_Nemo](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/little_nemo/32/3120_2.png) [@Little\_Nemo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Little_Nemo)\
**Post date:** [September 17, 2013, 6:39pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/2 "2013-09-17T18:39:13Z")

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> [@etv78](#):
>
> i noticed that 8 teams are 2-0 and 8 are 0-2, exactly 1/4 of the league. is this a coincidence or just basic math/probability?

Are you talking about the fact that it’s eight and eight teams? That’s a coincidence; it could be six and six or ten and ten. But the fact that there are an equal number of 2-0 and 0-2 teams is basic probability.

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**Author:** ![etv78](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/d78d45/32.png) [@etv78](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/etv78)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 3:48am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/3 "2013-09-18T03:48:53Z")

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Thanks **Nemo**! Last took probability 15+ years ago. Assume same reason exactly half the league is 1-1?

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**Author:** ![Little\_Nemo](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/little_nemo/32/3120_2.png) [@Little\_Nemo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Little_Nemo)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 3:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/4 "2013-09-18T03:54:26Z")

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> [@etv78](#):
>
> Thanks **Nemo**! Last took probability 15+ years ago. Assume same reason exactly half the league is 1-1?

That’s also a coincidence. You could have more or fewer 1-1 teams.

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**Author:** ![Saint\_Cad](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/saint_cad/32/18907_2.png) [@Saint\_Cad](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Saint_Cad)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 4:56am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/5 "2013-09-18T04:56:35Z")

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> [@Little\_Nemo](#):
>
> Are you talking about the fact that it’s eight and eight teams? That’s a coincidence; it could be six and six or ten and ten. But the fact that there are an equal number of 2-0 and 0-2 teams is basic probability.

Actually, the reasons there are equal numbers of 2-0 and 0-2 teams is not probability, it’s basic counting. If every team played 2 games then there will ALWAYS be the same number of 2-0 and 0-2 teams.

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**Author:** ![etv78](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/d78d45/32.png) [@etv78](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/etv78)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 6:20am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/6 "2013-09-18T06:20:04Z")

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That’s what I thought **Cad**! Assume that’s also why exactly half the league is .500?

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**Author:** ![eschereal](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/eschereal/32/18939_2.png) [@eschereal](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/eschereal)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 6:36am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/7 "2013-09-18T06:36:32Z")

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For every win, there is a corresponding loss. The number of total losses will always equal the number of wins.

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**Author:** ![Robot\_Arm](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/robot_arm/32/18280_2.png) [@Robot\_Arm](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Robot_Arm)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 7:52am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/8 "2013-09-18T07:52:19Z")

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> [@etv78](#):
>
> That’s what I thought **Cad**! Assume that’s also why exactly half the league is .500?

Not exactly. The number of 2-0 teams must equal the number of 0-2 teams, but it’s not a certainty that exactly half the teams are 1-1. You could, conceivably, have sixteen 2-0 teams and sixteen 0-2, although it would be unlikely for the schedule to work out that way. Or you could have fifteen teams 2-0, fifteen 0-2, and two 1-1. Or any other combination, really. You could have all thirty-two teams be 1-1, but that would also require a rather quirky schedule.

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**Author:** ![keving](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/a587f6/32.png) [@keving](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/keving)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 9:58am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/9 "2013-09-18T09:58:33Z")

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> [@For You](#):
>
> For every win, there is a corresponding loss. The number of total losses will always equal the number of wins.

To flesh that out a bit:

After week 1, all teams are either 1-0 or 0-1.

In week 2,  
(a) if 1-0 beats 0-1, that creates 2-0 0-2  
(b) if 0-1 beats 1-0, that creates 1-1 1-1  
(c) if 1-0 beats 1-0, that creates 2-0 1-1  
(d) if 0-1 beats 0-1, that creates 1-1 0-2

(a) and (b) lead to matching numbers of 2-0 and 0-2. But why can’t there be unequal numbers of (c)s and (d)s? Because, if there were, there would be more total wins than losses, or vice versa. Which is impossible, so the number of (c)s and (d)s must match.

Put another way, if a 1-0 team is paired with another 1-0 team in week 2, that uses up more of the 1-0 teams, so there must be a corresponding 0-1 vs. 0-1 pairing to make up for it.

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**Author:** ![N9IWP](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/n9iwp/32/3154_2.png) [@N9IWP](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/N9IWP)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 10:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/10 "2013-09-18T10:54:59Z")

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There are also ties, but those are uncommon

Brian

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**Author:** ![Munch](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/munch/32/5281_2.png) [@Munch](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Munch)\
**Post date:** [September 18, 2013, 12:49pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/nfl-records-through-week-2-math-question/669070/11 "2013-09-18T12:49:01Z")

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> [@etv78](#):
>
> That’s what I thought **Cad**! Assume that’s also why exactly half the league is .500?

No. What if, by coincidence, in Week 2 every 1-0 team played a 0-1 team, and every 1-0 team won? Or lost? Then either 1/2 the league would be 2-0 and the other half 0-2, or everyone would be 1-1.

You’re seeing the symmetry in the standings and thinking it’s a pattern. It’s not.
