# Obama 1st since FDR to be re-elected with more than 50% of the vote?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/obama-1st-since-fdr-to-be-re-elected-with-more-than-50-of-the-vote/640407>\
**Category:** Politics & Elections\
**Created:** [November 8, 2012, 9:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/obama-1st-since-fdr-to-be-re-elected-with-more-than-50-of-the-vote/640407 "2012-11-08T21:20:51Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Page:** 3

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**Author:** ![Enlightening\_Meditation](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/ecc23a/32.png) [@Enlightening\_Meditation](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enlightening_Meditation)\
**Post date:** [November 18, 2012, 4:35pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/obama-1st-since-fdr-to-be-re-elected-with-more-than-50-of-the-vote/640407/41 "2012-11-18T16:35:56Z")

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[QUOTE=Hentor the Barbarian]  
First Democrat. Reagan was modestly successful in 1984.  
[/QUOTE]  
Yes. Of course, until 2012, only one Democrat (Clinton in '96) was re-elected as President since FDR. Perot had a large minority of the vote in 1996 as a 3rd party candidate, so Clinton possibly could have reached beyond 50% of the popular vote if Perot didn’t run.

He’s being sarcastic about Reagan. The Gipper stomped Mondale in '84 with 59% popular vote.

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