Indeed, as is anyone’s opinion.
With that recognized we could stick to facts and debate the question as to whether or not the de minimis doctrine is indeed a part of American Constitutional Law, but we’d have to set some parameters.
The subject is very interesting to me, and I’m not appealing to my own authority at all as a legal expert.
I am willing to continue if we can find a way to avoid the aforementioned problems. I think we will wind up agreeing.
For instance, for the life of me I cannot come up with the text of the D.C. court’s opinion in Jones. But as far as I know, the only justification offered is that the man owned a nightclub, which doesn’t cut it. You offered Marquez, (without checking back throughout the thread) but that is different because there was a host of reasons offered for suspecting him in comparison to Jones.
Now, there may be a valid justification for messing with Jones and his property–if I have the facts straight (or maybe it is the companion case the S.Ct. granted certiorari with Jones instead) as I understand a warrant was issued for ten days, although they waited for the 11th day to attach the GPS. Assuming the warrant was up to snuff, then there must have been some probable cause. I can’t understand why, particularly when the government’s strategy is to delay any arrest, why they had so little regard for getting a warrant. An expired warrant is no warrant at all. Maybe they just wanted to avoid getting a tongue lashing from the judge for not acting on the previous warrant. Nevertheless, I still do not have any facts available as to what the probable cause might be. If nightclub owner is the only probable cause then this case is bad for that reason.
If you want to continue, let me narrow my premise to this:
In all cases where the rights of an individual or group of specific individuals are at stake, and probable cause is the standard requirement, de minimis does not cure any defect in a constitutional question of violation of rights absent that probable cause. In other words, de minimis does not replace probable cause as a justification.
I am not arguing that the words de minimis are ever used by courts in balancing tests, but am claiming that these balancing tests are all performed in questions where the alleged violation occurs after a legitimate action has been taken, and never as a replacement for the legitimate action. De minimis alone does not replace probable cause.
Now, I’m essentially claiming a negative. I cannot prove my claim by presenting every case and saying “Not Here!” and it would get ridiculous.
So rather than a demand for a cite, I will simply say that I’d sure like to see any case that shows I am wrong about the aforementioned claim, which I calim to be a fact of the state of the law.
If you know of such a case, I’d sure like to see it.
For purposes of continuing, I retract any and all previous claims for the sake of simplicity, and advance only the claim in this post. It was just too messy.
I apologize if it appears I was just trying to play games. I wasn’t. Other threads can demonstrate my willingness to concede I am wrong when shown, and I will here as well, I just wanna see the case where the cop intrudes, ordinarily needs probable cause (or whatever standard justification for his activity) and the court then says he didn’t need that justification because the harm done was too minimal to matter. I contend there is no such case.