Your assumption the language in the Bill of Rights are “particularly deliberately vague” is a false assumption. They may appear vague to you but at the time the language for the amendments was selected and approved for submission as ratification, the words had meaning to those at the time and they understood what the amendments said and meant. Otherwise, according to you, James Madison and the House Committee on Style were choosing words, phrases, sentences, and paragraphs in which they had little to no idea what was being said or meant by their word selection. Furthermore, by your logic, and Congress was approving of amendments they could not understand, and neither could the public.
But, none of this is true because the words they chose did have meaning, a limited range of meaning, and the public understood these meanings and consequently, knew and understood what was being asserted, protected, and demanded by the Bill of Rights. Many of the rights, if not all of them, enshrined in the Bill of Rights have their genesis in the Magna Charter, the English Bill of Rights, and the English courts’ decisions expounding upon these rights, known as the English common law. Many if not most of the people at the time the Bill of Rights were submitted for ratification knew what was being talked about in the amendments because these were rights they were intimately familiar with as a result of their English heritage, specifically those sources which protected their rights as Englishmen.
So, it is incorrect to state the amendments were written vaguely, specifically written in such a manner as to defy its meaning being known to the public and future generations.
Quite obviously, I do disagree with the court on this, as my prior remark indicates. Furthermore, I do not think I have presented their arguments in an unfair or coherent manner. I think my example comes squarely within the reasoning of their decision when the stakeout involves one of “surveillance” and this surveillance reveals information.
The rationale used in this case would be the same for the stakeout involving surveillance. What a reasonable person expects another might actually do is the standard relied upon by the court in this decision and they said, “the likelihood a stranger would observe all those movements is not just remote, it is essentially nil.” Similarly, the likelihood a “stranger” would stakeout for let’s say 24 hours a day for 28 days, and in this process obtain information about the person they are staking out, is equally “effectively nil.” Therefore, this would be a search.
If law enforcement officers came to me and inquired whether they’d need a warrant to stakeout an address for 24 hours a day for 28 days, and in doing so they will acquire some information, I would advise them this would be a search based on this opinion and a warrant is probably necessary. Why? Because this scenario does come within the reasoning of this decision. The fact the court may later on split hairs and distinguish its decision from such an example does not change the fact this example logically is covered by the rationale and reasoning of the decision.
I am not treating this decision unfairly or misstating anything about the decision, or dismissing it on this basis. Not sure if your last sentence was directed towards me or not but it certainly seems like it.
It is certainly what your reasoning suggested. What else did you suggest by stating, “So why was the language of the Bill of Rights in particular deliberately vague and comparative if not to rely on interpretations in the face of shifting societal expectations?”
Here is what you said: “Well, according to this decision, if the “stakeout” is one involving surveillance for 24 hours a day for 28 days, then yes they need a warrant.” The court, however, specifically did not say that at all. In fact, it went out of its way to NOT reach that conclusion. And they explained, once again, that they found the GPS tracking to gather information that is “not exposed to the public”, as you concluded.
You drew your own conclusions, which is fine. Have at it. But at least make sure that you identify them as YOUR conclusions based on the court’s ruling, especially when the court went out of its way to specifically not reach your conclusion. This will save us all from being frustrated.
Searches and seizures (unreasonable) are limited by the 4th. Since nothing is being seized nor is anyone’s freedom to move about restricted, the only argument can be that this is an unreasonable search. Someone above doesn’t even want to be followed without a warrant. So here I am in my patrol car and some shifty looking character is wandering around your neighborhood at night. Maybe I’ll turn of my headlights and keep an eye on him. No, wait! I need a warrant to follow him. Oh, well. I’ll go get a doughnut and some coffee. That’s obviously ridiculous and, even if you want to call it a search, its not unreasonable. You’d be up in arms (Well, maybe not. While you were so busy worrying about your 4th Amendment rights Big Brother came and trampled your 2nd Amendment rights) if the cops weren’t doing their job by investigating suspected criminal activity. And that may mean following them, possibly 24/7 for days at a time, to develop the probable cause necessary to arrest them
along with sufficient evidence to convict them.
Marley23 - how high of a threshold would you demand before the state “spies” on someone? What constitutes spying? And who determines if that threshold has been met? This is all great academic fun but there is a real world out there.
I can see the potential confusion with the phrase, “According to this decision,” which I did not perceive before. So, for future purposes, I will say, “Based on the court’s ruling, here is what I understand an inference to be,” or if my habit dies hard, you will hopefully oblige me with your patience, knowing what I am in fact saying, until such time I write in a manner you find not so frustrating?
It was written in language that did not limit it to a particular, current set of prohibitions. Instead it was, in certain parts, deliberately written to include an evolving standard and those at the time fully understood it to include an evolving standard. It could have been definitive and proscriptive. That it wasn’t must be presumed to have a purpose, and the most logical purpose, looking to the text, is that the framers intended the scope of protected activity to reflect evolving societal thoughts, rather than simply a pre-Revolutionary British common law zone of protection frozen in time for perpetuity.
Doesn’t the 4th protect "persons, papers, and PROPERTY? Wasn’t attaching a device to the car (Property) without a warrent akin to a hidden camera in a home or an illegal phone tap?
I don’t know if its relevant to this particular case or to the constitutional question at hand, but the GPS device has a capability that the agents. neighbors, etc. don’t have. It can track your movements on private land. Granted, it would have to be a big parcel of land for this to be meaningful, but I know people who have ranches with several square miles you can’t see from any public area other than the sky.
But your car is PROPERTY which is mentioned in the 4th amendment. Plus, I would argue that if a home is allowed as secure from spying, my car is an extention of my home, as a foriegn diplomat’s limo is an extention of his “country”.
Argue it all you want. It’s been tried multiple times and failed. It gets interesting when you live in your car, or when you drive a mobile home, but the argument that it is an extension just doesn’t fly in court.
Also, if you grow weed in your windows, the cop doesn’t need a warrant. It’s in plain view. As is a car when not sat in a garage.
A foreign diplomat’s car is not an extension of his country, any more than his embassy is.
Your car is not an extension of your home, no matter what you would argue. The Supreme Court has a ton of cases on cars and how they may be seized and searched. Not a single one of them asserts that your car is an extension of your home. See, e.g., Chimel v. California and Carroll v. US for starters.
Yes, your car is property, and yes, property is mentioned in the Fourth Amendment. This means only that the goverment cannot seize or search your car unreasonably.
Its bullshit. If those cops could legally have tailed that guy through the city streets or tailed him by helicopter, then why does it matter that they did so electronically?