First, let me propose a couple of principles:
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Accounting transparency not only demands full disclosure, it must also allow for comparisons between the firm and industry as well as between the firm and the market average. So placing an accounting category that amounts to 2 and 1/2 percent of total profits in a footnote is inadequate. Yet that is the current treatment of stock option compensation.
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Expenses should be recorded for the period for which they are accrued. In other words, if somebody works for you in the year 2000, and you agree to pay her in the year 2001, you should expense the cost in the previous year (2000). This rules out Manny’s #4, “Value the options at exercise, not granting.”
Revaluation: Problem or no problem?
Now, Manny said, *Imagine a company having a credit to earnings because their stock fell 90% last year and all of last year’s options are now worth a lot less! *
Um, if you agree to pay out $10 if the stock goes up and $0 if the stock goes down, it seems to me that your liability has fallen when the stock drops. So I don’t see a problem with your scenario. It seems appropriate to revalue your liabilities periodically. If those liabilities vary negatively with the stock price, so what? [1]
Admittedly, I’m currently a little fuzzy on the relationship between the income statement and the balance sheet. Also, I would like to inquire:
Are outstanding stock options currently put in the balance sheet, as msmith implied?
Manny on the Black-Sholes scenario: There are various tweaks to the formula that different compensation consultants use, but there’s no consensus which means you could shop consultants to get the results you want.
A rule that allows shopping would violate Flowbark’s principle of comparability.
I suppose the FASB could mandate a method, but I’m not sure you solve much by doing that. Also, the valuation would not be useful for comparisons between companies, because the input varies so much from firm to firm. And of course there is the whole re-valuation problem above. Not to mention that it takes a PhD to understand it.
Let’s assume that the FASB mandates a non-optimal method. As long as the methodology is standardized, that would allow for valid cross-firm comparisons, right? Or not right?
I addressed the re-valuation problem, above: I don’t see it as a problem. At least not yet.
PhD: Hey, it “creates jobs”.
More naive questions for Manhattan: Stripping out a well-defined line item is pretty straightforward, right? And there’s something called a cash flow statement, ya? So the creditors should be groovy with the SEC Black-Sholes scenario, ya? (Or nah?)
I could go on, but I think I’ve written enough for now. I should stress that I am not saying the Black-Sholes scenario is best, merely that it is superior to the current system.
[1] I recognize that this is a peculiar liability in that it is a demand for equity rather than cash.