I find it odd that Bricker and Dewey are both claiming that the Mass SC was inventing rights in Goodridge. The decision makes it very clear that the question is one of whether the existing marriage statutes violated the guarantees to equal treatment under the law made by the Mass Constitution. The right to equality before the law is hardly a new right. Requiring equality with regards to sexual orientation in the realm of civil marriage might be a new application of that right, but the right itself is certainly not new. Moreover, the majority decision proceeds in exactly the fashion recommended by our local strict constructionists in any number of threads on this issue. It takes the issue to be one of equal protection, it proceeds with a rational basis test, and finds that the state does not fails to meet the requirements of that test. Many times both Bricker and Dewey have said that this is precisely the way the courts should analyze the situation.
What makes Goodridge “activist”, then, must be the fact that the MSC thinks that the rational basis test isn’t automatically passed by any statute that isn’t clearly insane. This, however, seems extremely sketchy grounds for drawing the line between activist and not activist.
I am sure they will both respond by asking rhetorically whether the legislators that passed the equal protection amendment intended to be mandating same-sex marriages, assuming the answer to this question to be no. I agree that the answer to the rhetorical question would be no, but I don’t find this argument persuasive in the least.
Suppose we travelled back in time to the passing of Article CVI (if memory serves, this was the early 70’s), and we sit down for a chat with a Massachusetts legislator. Our conversation might go something like this:
Us: So, by passing this equal protection amendment, do you mean to be requiring the state to recognize same-sex marriage?
Him: What the hell are you talking about?
Us: I mean, if two homosexual men (or women) wished to marry each other, should the state be required to recognize that marriage?
Him: Absolutely not!
Us: But this amendment requires that the state have a rational basis to violate persons’ equality before the law, doesn’t it?
Him: Of course.
Us: But doesn’t that mandate state recognition of same-sex marriages?
Him: Don’t be ridiculous. Homosexuality is a psychological disorder. The state’s mandate to promote public health is all the rational basis needed to discriminate between same-sex and opposite-sex couples with regards to marriage.
One might also imagine that our hypothetical legislator might object on the basis of straighforward bigotry. It seems clear to me that the intent of the legislators was to require equal treatment before the law absent rational basis to do otherwise. It seems equally clear to me that the legislators would have assumed that this didn’t require recognition of same-sex marriage based on false views about the nature of homosexuality which, had they been true, would have given the state a rational basis to deny equal treatment.
I see no reason to understand the intent of the legislators through the filter of their historic misconceptions of reality, rather than understanding their intent based on the principles they were setting in place, to be applied using an up to date understanding of reality.
Certainly it is possible to disagree with this analysis. Asserting that it is “activist” in any interesting way is going to require an actual argument.