While it’s true that schizophrenia is not MPD (or DID), I think it’s possible that they co-exist in some individuals, and that MPD is present in these individuals because of their schizophrenia.
Sure, dual-diagnoses can occur - but schizophrenia does not cause MPD.
I agree, GorillaMan.
Going off on a tangent-- while dual-diagnoses can occur, it is usually best to go with one or the other (in a lot of cases).
In the DSM-IV, when you look at the list of symptoms “required” for a diagnosis of a particlar disorder, you will usually see a clause that says something to the effect of: “These symptoms are not better described by a different diagnosis.”
Since there are a lot of parallels between DID and Schizophrenia, usually a diagnosis will just include one or the other. I’m sure that there are, of course, exceptions to this, though.
LilShieste
In the spirit of this thread, dare I bring up the problems with lay vs professional use of the word “addiction”?