Please help me dispel this racist myth.

Reading this thread I was reminded of the HBO movie I saw this weekend, Conspiracy.

It was about a high level meeting in 1942 or Nazi’s to try and determine the Final Solution to the Jewish “question”. It was amazing in it’s banality (if I may steal a word from Hannah Arendt) of the meeting. It had the feel of a well run business meeting. And what one of the more predominant themes was identifying the Jews as a race. Who was a Jew? How much Jewish blood? Did they “look Jewish”, “act Jewish”. It was chilling to the bone. This whole discussion of identifying “race” to try and pick out differences gives me much the same feeling.

A couple of points:

Various posters (i.e. RickJay, John Corrado) have claimed that the current distribution of ethnic groups in pro sports can be attributed to cultural and societal influences. These posters point to other sports (e.g. hockey, volleyball etc.) which do not have the same ethnic breakdown, or to other eras in which other ethnic groups dominated, and “prove” their point. These comparisons are IMHO completely and obviously invalid.

All the sports cited in which blacks do not dominate are also sports in which blacks do not usually participate. It is pointless (for example) for RickJay to go on about how blacks do not dominate rowing and kayaking knowing full well that very few blacks participate in these sports. By contrast, baseball, basketball and football are sports that are very much a part of white culture. The fact that whites are not making it to the pros from these sports at the same rates as blacks are is significant. (I also agree that the fact that bocce is dominated by old Italian guys is not indicative of a genetic advantage in that sport either. Concession).

And the comparisons to different eras are also meaningless, and for the same reason. In those bygone eras, professional sports did not have the same prestige and financial incentives as it does today. For this reason, relatively few upper-class people played these sports, leaving the field open for immigrants and lower-working class people. (e.g. Jews dominated pro basketball for a few years before the league reached mass popularity). Today, there are few if any athletes who would rather develop their skills as an accountant than see how far their athletic skills can take them.

Bottom line is, that the suggestion that baseball, basketball and football are disproportionately black is because whites are not culturally into these sports is blatently ridiculous, and in any event, certainly not comparable to all the other examples cited.

Furthermore, as I’ve pointed out on another thread, within the same sport blacks tend to excel in different areas than whites. Specifically, blacks tend to excel at speed (e.g. base-stealers in baseball, receivers and secondary in football), not so much at throwing. Also, though (as someone pointed out earlier) Hispanics are a major presence in boxing, they are disproportionately concentrated in the lower weight classes. Is this cultural?

I couldn’t say for sure, but if push came to shove my best guess would be that the Black advantage in sports is at least in large part genetic (which is not to say that it maps to specific races etc.) But even if this were shown to be wrong, it would not elevate the arguments made here to the point of being logical ones.

Since AWC brought up the Olympics, here’s one for those who “know” that “East Africans” dominate long distance running: how do you explain the results from the women’s marathon in 2000? First place: Naoka Takahaski (Japan). Second Place: Lidia Simon (Romania). Third place: Joyce Chepchumba (Kenya). In fact, 4 of the top 10 finishers were from Japan, North Korea, or China; 2 were from eastern Europe; 4 from Kenya or Ethiopia. Interesting distribution. Also, where are the other east African countries?

Someone mentioned volleyball: this is a sport that requires strength, speed, and jumping ability – abilities very similar to those required by basketball. Why not more black athletes in this sport?

This sounds similar to the reasoning that until recently was a well-known “fact”: blacks don’t make good quarterbacks. Perhaps one reason that blacks excel as receivers in football is that other positions were denied to them.

The most depressing thing about this is that I have gone over this agian and again. Specifically, with Izzy. It is depressing to find out that one can not adequately explain a concept, although admittedly genetic trait distributions, multi-trait analysis and the confluence of environment and genetics are terribly complex.

How can one overcome the deeply entrenched fallacy of composition? I’m not sure how much more adequately I can emphasize the problematic of drawing ** biological ** conclusions based on an ephemeral dominance of one sociologically defined group.

I see the statement “West African” descended – which strikes me as a highly * deceptive * fashion of describing African Americans given their highly heterogenous descent. As many have mentioned, including myself, all African Americans have significant inputs from Europeans, Asians, Native Americans. However, because the brother has curly hair and a bit of a tint he’s “West African descended” and somehow, against all the data, this is presumed to describe a coherent distribution of traits. I remain incapable of understanding this fundamental illogic. How does John Starks somehow qualify as “West African” descended over “European” descended? – using the rather gross and fallacious skin color standard or better, proxy.

I really want to know how Izzy et al justify such sloppy thinking. It truly escapes me. (but then so does the creationists here, come to think of it. Nor does this thinking differ in style or substance from them.)

I am further astonished that scientific method and approaches are so poorly understood and internalized that such a large number of posters give credit to casual observation over hard data. No matter the ample data from psychology and other disciplines indicating the unreliability of this kind of observation, never mind the history of failure of this, its utter bankruptcy in terms of advancing knowledge.

So, Izzy wants comparability. First, let me suggest that Izzy needs to pull himself out of the little cultural cocooon of the United States and look at some other sports where “races” compete outside of the race-caste hierarchy and constraints of the United States if he wants true comparability. Even here, this proves nothing in particular as we are not ** controlling ** for any of the legion of socio-cultural biases which enter into selection of teams or their roles. But let me suggest that football (soccer), with its international distribution, the real obession which characterizes it around the world (except the USA) and its all-around athleticism (which should, given the various positions, at least, if there are “racial” physical predilictions based on genetic heritage, show significant racial breakdowns.) would be a good choice. So would Cricket.

Of course, I also find the ipso facto exclusion of non-black dominated sports (in anglo-american contexts) to be rather blinkered if not illogical. Here we are rather seeing a boot-strapping of the argument. They’re not their because they don’t compete. Why don’t they compete? Socio-economic constraints? Well, why the ** a priori ** exclusion of such considerations from selection for a sport? I await a logically argued rational beyond the statement (if not in such words) I just don’t think so.

Previously, Edwino, Gaspode, myself, Tom and others have given closely argued, on the ** genetic data ** arguments why we do not think that * racial * explanations work. Trait distributions just do not reflect the kinds of distributions which would explain a racial distribution. This is answered how? By, if I may be blunt, hand-waving arguments. We have the claim that the observation that “whites” – i.e. that part of the population not dark and curly haired enough to be called black – is "not making it in a sub-set of sports is a “significant observation” with the implication what we must attribute this to biological causes. But on what bases? What * genetic * evidence do we have?

Then there is the issue of time bounded observations, where Izzy uses one blade of the sword to cut down the observations on jews and other low-status (but not black as they are largely excluded) groups dominating, with the airy observation “sports did not have the same prestige and financial incentives as it does today. For this reason, relatively few upper-class people played these sports, leaving the field open for immigrants and lower-working class people.” Strange, I am heretofor unaware that a particularly large number of “upper-class” people are attracted to the playing (as opposed to the equally luctrative, in fact given the odds of return, more lucrative business side) side of the industry.

I may be utterly off base, but I had been led to beleive that in fact in terms of “playing” that lower income levels dominate. Izzy’s observation, given my understanding, which of course may be refuted if it is incorrect through aggregate data on the socio-economic origins of professional sport players in American Football, Basketball and what else?, indeed strongly suggests that the motivations for disfavored socio-economic groups which may percieve that their avenues of advancement in non-sports areas are limited, to invest heavily in attempting to succeed. I have never seen a quantitative sociological analysis, but multiple reports on this suggest this is true. So, if I assume that Izzy in fact does not have data, then we are at an impasse in terms of sociological observations other than the body of observations would rather support the conclusion that his observation is without strong emperical support and may be considered something of a red-herring.

So, my bottom line is until Izzy et al produce ** hard data ** based on rigorous analysis I see ** abosulely ** no logical support for his assertion, for that is what it is, that a socio-economic explanation is “blatently ridiculous” insofar as that explanation best fits the present data – above all the most objective and verifiable data – genetics.

Finally, in terms of differential areas of “excellence” of “races”, I believe that Izzy has seen refutations of his sloppy categories more than once. Indeed multiple times this has been called into question. (I can cite to problems in terms of selection bias, definition of traits in question for any given activity, lack of comparability etc. etc. etc.) The question arises then why cling to this in the face of rigorous criticism without a shred of actual objective data? No, we have only what, sloppy casual observation, upon which I am expected to abandon hard science? Or rather, why is that Izzy remains wedded, based on this kind of shit observation and data, to a racialist explanation (his caveat “which is not to say that it maps to specific races etc.” makes little sense to me. If we are talking about differences attributabe to individual level genetic differentiation plus socio-economic selection there is hardly a basis of dispute, if it is not race then what the hell is the group defined given the clear hetegeneity of black american descendance?)

Now if there is some substantive refutation of this, based on rigorous data, I am always open to it. So far I have yet to see any. Instead I see “refutations” based on ad hoc and a priori assumptions. which the “refuter” doesn’t bother to examine. Fundamentally unscientific. The same with the blithe dismissals of other explanations. I have yet to see a logically rigorous, data based and critical examination of the categories from this side. No, what I see is an emotive, knee-jerk reaction based on assumed categories and casual observation of the kind which we know is flawed and ultimately unreliable. And this is supposed to be convincing?

Finally, I am thinking of trying the following so that an item which is clearly, painfully clearly, not understood might be better understood: trait distributions between populations. I believe this may lie at the heart of the inability of a goodly number of people to grasp the observations that I, Edwino, Gaspode, Tomndeb and others have made. I confess it’s not easy and distilling this in an obvious form would not be easy but if it would be helpful I think I might like to make it a going away post. It might take me a while, and I would have to consult with others in re designing something clear, yet representative.

Well, just a thought.

Baseball isn’t disproportionately played by blacks at the major league level. Football I don’t know about. But if you really believe whites and blacks play the same amount of basketball in the United States, you evidently know very little about amateur and high school basketball. There is a HUGE cultural divide there.

And I’d still like to know why volleyball players aren’t all black. Doesn’t pretty much every kid play volleyball in school at one point or another? That genetic advantage should be revealing itself, shouldn’t it?

Please. If basestealing was a product of genetic speed advantage, Herb Washington would have lasted a lot longer than he did and all kinds of great baserunners would be coming out of west Africa. Speed is a secondary skill in basestealing, anyway; nobody thinks Rickey Henderson’s one of the fastest runners of all time. Roberto Alomar used to steal 40-50 bases a year and he wasn’t (and isn’t) particularly fast at all.

IzzyR wrote:

If push came to shove, would you also say that the White advantage in receiving a PhD is at least in large part genetic?

That’s dangerous territory you’re creeping into there Iz. Let’s not confuse genetics with social and environmental factors.

Cartooniverse: Surely you must be Mythtaken?

Leslie Nielson: I’m not Mythtaken, and don’t call me Shirley. :wink:

Sorry. This is beyond sickening, I had to crack a joke. I now return you to your previously scheduled racist rant, already in progress on many of your ABC affilate stations.

Cartooniverse

Collounsbury,

It’s generous of you to ascribe our continuing disagreement to your supposed deficiencies at explaining. But you should also consider that you may be hampered by persistently framing the issue (and interperating others’ remarks) in your particular, scientific, context. The “sloppy thinking” that you are asking me to “justify” has no connection to anything I’ve said on this topic. I would suggest that you reread my post (and subsequent posts) here See also the post to this thread by tomndebb (final paragraph).

To be clearer, if possible, the primary issue that I addressed in this thread is as follows: Can one conclude that the current disproportionate black prescence in the three major US sports must be attributed to cultural or societal influences by pointing to other sports or other eras when this dominance did not exist? And secondarily, is it likely that members of the social group known as blacks are on average more physically gifted in certain areas that give them an advantage in these sports?

The reason I am not inclined to pull myself “out of the little cultural cocooon of the United States” is that I would rather limit myself to matters that I am familiar with. Also, it’s not at all clear that a tendency in American blacks must also be present in others.

I’m unclear what you find illogical about the “ipso facto exclusion” etc. If one observes that two populations engage in a given activity at vastly different rates, be it chess or volleyball or whatever, then if one finds that the population that engages in it more also contains a disproportionate percentage of the most skilled people one does not have to look far for an explanation. This applies to all the examples cited by our worthy posters (as well as the Canadian dominance of the NHL). However, if one finds two populations that engage in an activity at roughly comparable rates, and still the top tier players are disproportionately from one population, it demands an explanation. One cannot establish as an immutable principle of science that all such differences must result from differences in culture simply by citing some examples where it obviously does so.

When I said “upper class” I did not mean super-rich guys as you seem to be inferring. I perhaps should have used middle class. One such example (which I used in an earlier thread - don’t recall if you were involved) was Byron “Whizzer” White, who led the NFL in rushing in two out of the three years that he played. Then he dropped out of the league to attend law school, (his place as league leader likely taken by someone who was not such good law school material) ultimately winding up on the USSC. In today’s era such a thing would be unthinkable.

I am sure that lower incomes dominate professional sports today. But this does not show, as you seem to imply, that lower socio-economic status is a cause of athletic prowess. Merely a correlation. If for whatever reason blacks are better at sports than whites, that would by itself cause this correlation to be true, as blacks are, on average, poorer than whites.

RickJay

This is simply untrue. Perhaps you are unaware of the meaning of the word “disproportionate”. Or maybe you are unaware that blacks constitute 12% of the US population. Pick your choice.

OK, do you really believe that 75% of high school basketball players in this country are black?

I don’t know if this is true. My (limited) understanding in this area is that the majority of the top volleyball players are drawn from a relatively small population of Southern Californians, who are very into volleyball. But in any event, I specifically noted that blacks don’t seem to be favored in all athletic areas - it may be that volleyball does not call on skills that they are favored with to the extent that some of the other sports do.

You seem to be extremely knowledgable about sports, and I find it hard to believe that you seriously believe that speed is a secondary skill in base-stealing. (Even if were so it would not take away from my point - at least speed counts for something, and if one population has an edge in that area it will give them an edge in base-stealing).

On the whole I’m unsure what to make of your last post.

felix penfold

Good that you bring this up. This is really the unspoken subtext of all these discussions, and is no doubt a primary driver in many “scientific” opinions.

IzzyR, listen up.

I’m a dark skinned Puerto Rican. This is my family:

My father’s so light he burns almost instantaneously when exposed to the sun. Turns fire-engine red. According to the family mythology, my color comes from his side of the family, though.
My mother’s about one shade lighter than I am. Her family is unremarkably Puerto Rican, as far as we can determine, for as far back as the records go. There are insinuations of possible native Indian ancestry in the looks of some of her siblings.
My father’s family history is as follows: my great-grandfather came from Corsica, married a mulatta - a mixed-race woman (this is noted in my family history because it’s supposed to ‘explain’ my color, in much the way you might explain your child’s unusual hair color (say it was red while everyone else was brown) by referring to his grandfather). My grandfather married a blond, blue-eyed woman, and had children with a wide range of skin colors. Sitting around one day reading the papers, he found out about a freeze in the Brazilian coffee fields. He hightailed it over to my maternal great-grandfather, a prosperous large landowner at that time, and asked for a loan. He got it, and promptly bought up all the coffee he could get his hands on. Made a killing selling it back when the price went up as a result of the Brazilian situation. With the profits, he bought a large piece of land and turned himself into as prosperous a landowner as my maternal great-grandfather.
He had lots of children, among them my father. My father came to the U.S., married my mom, became an accountant, and had three children.
My sister: so white you’d never know she could claim ‘Hispanic’ on the Census unless you knew her family history. Has an impossible time generating a decent tan. Lives in Kansas, married to an Irishman. Has one redheaded daughter, and one blonde, blue-eyed son. She’s a teacher.
My brother: dittums with my sister, except he married a dark skinned PR, and can manage a tan from time to time, and has one dark daughter and one lighter skinned daughter. He’s a gemologist, which means he grades diamonds and colored gems, and buys and sells them. Deals with Jewish and Indian businessmen all the time, and is highly regarded in his industry (stereotypically a ‘Jewish’ industry, although the Indians might have a thing or two to say about that).
Me: dark, as I noted above. Married a white woman. Have one son, who looks white, but tans nicely in the summer. I’m a computer programmer.
My ‘white’ brother is a way better athlete than me, especially at basketball, where he puts on moves that even Michael Jordan might be proud to display. I have the reputation of being the smartest one, but of course I know that’s not true: I just worked really hard at academic subjects because I stunk at sports. I was, in other words, a nerd. My sister is just plain normal.
So, to sum up, you have, in one family, a range of colors, and a range of abilities that match no known stereotype, starting with my “mixed-race” (appearance: white) grandfather who played the local coffee market so well. Why? Because none of us were brought up to think about race at all. In the old-time PR culture, no one gave anyone’s “race” a second thought (sadly, this isn’t true anymore). If any of us showed any kind of tendency in that direction as a result of growing up in the U.S., we were quickly brought up short by what we could see when we looked around our own house.
So yeah, whether you know it or not, you’re walking down some pretty dangerous territory. Given your posts, just to take one trivial example, you’d think that I could beat the pants off my brother in basketball. You’d be wrong.

Y’know, two things just occured to me. First, the General Question in this thread was answered in the first few posts. Second, all of the arguments in this thread, on both sides, have already been covered in the fifteen bazillion GD threads we already have on this topic. We don’t need to go through this again.