Presidential "signing statements" and the "legislative history"

Instructions to departments can be made informally, too. We’ve got email and telephones. While signing statements are certainly immediate, they are also more permanent. Executive orders and memos can be superseded; regs and be amended or repealed. Certainly the Presdent has the power to instruct the executve branch. I just think that signing statements are a silly way to do it. Indeed, I’d be very surprised to learn that the signing statement was the first that a department had heard of the President’s understanding of a new law.

I agree. It is clearly an attempt, for various reasons, to make the statement a part of the law. My view of it is kinda mild because it has had so little impact on the judiciary.

  1. What if the Arizona judge was instead a judge in the UK?

  2. What if the person in Arizona was neither clear-thinking nor a judge?

  3. What if the Arizona judge was on an enormous bench (535 members). The Arizona judge tried to convince the other judges that his view was the correct one, but his view did not carry the day. So he wrote a dissent. How persuasive would that be? What if, in addition, the Arizona judge stood to benefit (at least professionally) if his opinion was adopted?

  4. This is exactly why Scalia rejects legislative history in general. It is almost always self-serving crap. And it represents the (possibly disingenuous) opinions of individuals who by themselves can’t make law.

That’s a terrible analogy, Poly. I would hope that SC justices don’t decide this sort of thing in the same way you decide whether or not to take your kids swimming. In the SC’s situation, there is a correct answer, but in your case there is no correct answer.

As I said earlier, if they do take the presidents statements into account, then those statements do become binding. You can call it “influencing”, but the reult is the same.

Is this, possibly, one respect in which Alito’s (or “Scalito’s”) thinking differs from Scalia’s?

Very possible.

http://mediamatters.org/items/200601130012

http://www.nytimes.com/2006/01/10/politics/politicsspecial1/text-day2.html?pagewanted=all

http://www.nytimes.com/2006/01/11/politics/politicsspecial1/day3-text.html?pagewanted=all

So more like yes.

No, it isn’t. It’s no different than when the courts look to the rulings of other jurisdictions (something conservatives stupidly get their panties in a bunch over) for persuasive authority in deciding cases. There is a huge difference between something that is binding and something that is merely persuasive.

Originalist judges routinely examine the legislative history behnd a law in reaching their conclusions. That doesn’t make legislative history “binding” in any meaningful way – it just means it is an aid to understanding the purposes behind a law. A signing statement can be a similar aid, assuming one believes that the executive has (and should have) anything important to add in terms of grasping the intent behind the law.

http://www.boston.com/news/nation/washington/articles/2006/01/04/bush_could_bypass_new_torture_ban?mode=PF

Airwick, huh?

:confused:

I was referring to this part of the quoted material:

(Emphasis added.)

And pointing out that the signing statement that I quoted seems more like of of those stink bombs than a cure for them.