I suspect they’ll just pull out this, this or this from their bottom drawer.
The precise legal point is that no Act of Parliament applies to the monarch, unless the text of the Act specifically says so. The relevant legislation doesn’t.
[QUOTE=Mk VII]
she would need insurance to drive on the public road, and you can’t get insured with[out] a valid driving licence.
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Ditto. And as she won’t need insurance, what other people’s insurance policies may or may not say is completely irrelevant.
That she sometimes drives herself on public roads is reasonably well-known. It is said that she regularly does so between London and Windsor.
It should also be noted that, although she doesn’t need a passport, she does need to obtain permission from Parliament to leave the country. Which is why her speech at the State Opening of Parliament always contains details of her planned foreign trips.
[QUOTE=Alive At Both Ends]
Are you saying that if I buy land in England, it doesn’t really belong to me but to the Queen? I think you’ll have to back that up with a cite.
As I understood it, King William I came into ownership of the whole country in 1066, but he and his successors gave vast estates away to the barons as rewards for service and to keep them on his side. Having given the land away, it’s no longer royal property. Being king of a country doesn’t mean you have to own every last acre of it.
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[QUOTE=matt_mcl]
You’re quite right; there’s a difference between land that belongs to the Queen in the sense of sovereignty, in the sense that it is the property of the government as opposed to a private party, and in the sense that it belongs personally to the Queen and will belong to her heirs.
Other posters went into the difference between sovereignty and ownership; as a frinstance, if the Canadian government purchases a building in New York as a tourism office, say, the land is owned by HM in Right of Canada, but it is obviously under American sovereignty.* However, there’s also land that belongs to Elizabeth II herself, the so-called ‘crown estates’; the Queen herself owns that land like you own a house, and indeed rents a lot of it out to tenant farmers and such; since George III the revenue from this is turned over to the state, who turns around and gives the royal household a certain amount of that (the civil list) to pay for its activities of state. Similarly, Prince Charles owns a certain amount of land (e.g. the Duchy of Cornwall – not the same thing as the actual region of Cornwall, indeed including several territories outside of Cornwall), that he rents out and from whose revenues he pays for his own activities of state.
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No. You’re both confusing the issue.
This is what was then the Lord Chancellor’s Department had to say on the subject in 2001 in notes they submitted to the House of Lords.
[QUOTE=Lord Chancellor’s Department]
The Crown is the only absolute owner of land in England and Wales: all others hold an estate in land. Estates, which derive from feudal terms of tenure, originally took many forms but were reduced by the Law of Property Act 1925 to two, an estate in fee simple absolute in possession, generally known as “freehold”; and an estate for a term of years absolute generally known as “leasehold”.
http://www.parliament.the-stationery-office.co.uk/pa/ld200102/ldbills/002/en/02002x--.htm
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What often confuses people is the idea that feudal tenures were abolished in 1660, when in fact all that was abolished then were the practical effects of those tenures. The effect of that and of all subsequent legislation is that those who hold land by freehold hold it as if they owned it absolutely. So any theoretical ownership by the Crown is just that, theoretical. It is no more than a legal fiction. Contrast this with the case in Scotland, where feudal tenures were abolished outright. But only in 2000.
The Crown Estates are not owned by the Queen ‘like you own a house’. Well not in the sense you mean, as, in theory, the Crowns owns everyone’s house anyway (see above). The distinction is rather that those were lands that were not granted to tenants in capite but instead retained by the Crown; if they were granted to tenants, they were - and are - leased using lesser forms of tenure. It was not until the twentieth century that a clear distinction was established between the ‘Crown Estates’ and ‘Government Property’.
But the Crown Estates are not her private property either. But, then again, it is generally agreed that she does hold private property, namely Balmoral and Sandringham. The issue arose in 1936 when George VI had, in effect, to buy out the Duke of Windsor’s claim to the latter two estates.